On Jul 9, 2007, at 6:33 PM, bill kilpatrick wrote: > if kinship is acknowledged between a "vihuela" and a > "charango" - at what point in history did one become > the other? ... and why?
Bill, as long as we're distinguishing instruments, clearly in an effort to eschew obfuscation :-), what about the tiple? I understand that is also a descencent of the vihuela. How is it different to a charango? David R To get on or off this list see list information at http://www.cs.dartmouth.edu/~wbc/lute-admin/index.html
