> Eh! =A0 Didn't the appogiatura change (short to long) from the early
   > 17th through to the late 18thC (see, for example, Donnington pp 197
   > -228)

   Does that mean that any appogiatura occuring during the, say, 1st half
   of the 17th century is short, or would that be somewhat simplistic
   assumption, too?

   >=A0as did the trill (from a lower note start to upper) during much
   > the same period (Donnington pp 236-259).

   Does that mean that any trill occuring during the, say, 1st half of the
   17th century has a lower note start, or would that be somewhat
   simplistic assumption, too?

   >=A0The simplistic assumption
   > that there was a standard 'baroque trill' =A0(eg Monteclair's form)
   > throughout this period of great musical change is not borne out by
   the
   > contemporary evidence.

   Glad you said that, finally. So, what's your solution to the initial
   question (see below)?

   M.

   > My question= , however, was if there should be an appogiatura at all.
   > There is that opening measure e. g. of Bocquet's allemande #7 (Vm7
   > 6214 fol. 5)
   >
   > .2 =A0 3 =A0 =A01 =A01 1 1 =A01
   > ---|---------a---#e-e-|
   > -a-|-a'---r'---a------|
   > ---|-a----------------|
   > ---|-a----------------|
   > ---|------------------|
   > ---|------------------|
   > . ///a
   >
   > If you execute the first comma as an appogiatura, you'll have a ninth
   > on the opening chord of that piece. Does that seem right to you?


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