This is a point I'd like to understand better, too. Learning to fret
one's instrument and be (nominally) in tune w/ other instruments forces
us to confront meantone and understand it to some degree. If we always
play on our own or only with other ET instruments we don't have to.
When two lutenists get together we immediately see whether the other is
in a temperment or not.
Singers aren't so forced or so, ahem, 'nerdy' and often won't know what
meantone we use. Indeed, aurally, using a 1/6 comma often only appears
evident to _us_ in an overall feeling of "Gosh my lute sounds slightly
more in tune" without knowing the science behind it. Face it, we hear
the better intonation because we are actually playing the 3rds & 6ths
_against_ another note --ie. we play polyphony-- even when we play on
our own.
What keeps singers' 3rds and 6ths true if they constantly switch from
ET to various temperments (if they ever switch at all)? One can hope
they're understanding what's going on by ear but I keep imagining the
following scenario:
EK: Would you like to try a form of meantone for the Dowland songs?
Sting: A what?
From your professional experiences, do choral directers ever explicitly
choose a specific meantone scale? Do you ever get instructions to (not)
temper your frets? Is there an unspoken, assumed rule of thumb here?
When you set up with a new group do you ask about meantone? Of course
it's not necessary to say anything but if I suggested 1/4 comma to a
professional singer or group (for an appropriate era, piece or concert)
would that be out of line?
There are groups that don't appear to resolve this --to the audiences'
dismay.
Sean
On Feb 15, 2009, at 4:51 AM, Lex van Sante wrote:
Hi all!
Andrew wrote:
On the subject of lutenists accommodating (or not) singers:
Is there any evidence of what temperament the lutenist and singer -
I'm
thinking mainly of late 16th c lute songs - would have agreed on?
Would
the lutenist tune to get close to the temperament the singer had
trained to sing in (just intonation?) - or would the singer
helpfully
adjust to suit the tending-towards-ET lute accompaniment? Or does it
just work with voice and lute in different temperaments? I've never
been clear about this...
In my opinion composers who set music to words would have been
inclined
to use special sonorities offered by unequal temperaments to
underline
the sentiment of word. A singer singing in another temperament would
certainly destroy or at least alter these effects. I for one find
the
alteration of more and less pure intervals, when for instance a 6th
comma meantone temperament is employed, highly exciting.
Cheers,
Lex van Sante
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