Well, the first answer that springs to mind is because Spain had recently kicked out all the dance musicians, who had moved to Italy. They were left with a bunch of upwardly mobile courtiers (Milan), and serious-minded priests with so much time on their hands that they intabulated every piece of vocal polyphony they could put their hands on. Actually, there is quite a bit of dance music in Fuenllana's print, some but much less in the other six published books. Also, there was quite a bit of dance music evident in Naples, which was Spanish at the time. RA > Date: Mon, 4 May 2015 09:29:52 +0200 > To: [email protected] > From: [email protected] > Subject: [LUTE] Spain vs. Italy > > Hi all, > In the early 1500s, why are dances so common in Italian lute music and > so rare in the vihuela rep. ? > Thanks > -- > Sent from my Android phone with GMX Mail. Please excuse my brevity. > > > To get on or off this list see list information at > http://www.cs.dartmouth.edu/~wbc/lute-admin/index.html
--
