I won't even attempt to scan Horace, but could it be a question of meter that he uses he one rather than the other?
Helen COB
Come to think of it, that may be the reason Bede uses the name Maro in his hymn in the Ecclesiatical History.
On Monday, August 5, 2002, at 06:05 PM, Samuel P. Cole wrote:


--- You wrote:
In the case of Vergil, it seems clear (assuming we identify the person
named as the poet) that Horace in Odes I.3 calls Vergil "Vergil." So perhaps
it is as simple a thing as what people called these writers in ancient times.
I doubt that the Romans consistently called all people by one name or the
other.
--- end of quote ---


Horace and Vergil were relatively well acquainted, weren't they? I know that
they had at least met each other, so could it have been a familiar greeting?
Maybe our reason for calling them by the familiar name is a search for a closer
connection to them. Or maybe I've just fallen off the deep end.


-Sam Cole
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