In message <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>, David Wilson-Okamura <> writes
Commentators in the Renaissance routinely explain the proper name "Dis" as dis 'wealthy'. Cf. "Plouton" from "Ploutos" in Plato, Crat. 403a. I have two questions about this.

1. Is the Dis etymology valid?
Ernout-Meillet accept it; and I don't know of an alternative.
2. How old is it?
At least as old as Cicero (De natura deorum 2. 66), though Quintilian (1. 6. 34) took it to operate by contraries (quia minime dives).

Leofranc Holford-Strevens


Leofranc Holford-Strevens
67 St Bernard's Road                                         usque adeone
Oxford               scire MEVM nihil est, nisi ME scire hoc sciat alter?

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