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This is the follow-up post dealing with the  circumnavigation issue which I 
raised in my post entitled Dating the  Waldseemueller Map, Circumnavigation 
and The Magellan Myth (see  Maphist Volume 71 Issue 26, July 30, 2011).  
However, before further  exploring the circumnavigation issue relating to 
South America, I should  summarize the issue relating to a wood block insert in 
the Waldseemueller map  that bears on the dating of this famous map which 
cannot be separated from the  issue of the time the Portuguese required to 
circumnavigate Africa on a return  leg back to Lisbon.         
 
        To recapitulate, some years  ago while working on my book The 
Magellan Myth:  Reflections on  Columbus, Vespucci and the Waldseemueller Map 
of 
1507, now  available again for sale at the Book Store at the Library of 
Congress, I had  read that the last datable inscription or text on the 
Waldseemueller map related  to a reference to Portuguese success in gaining a 
commercial-political  foothold on the Subcontinent.  Despite many efforts, I 
was  
not able to relocate the pre-1914 scholarly essay containing this  assertion. 
 However, the obvious candidate is the boxed text placed as an  insert 
right off the Indian west coast as Waldseemueller shows it in his 1507  world 
map.  
 
       The actual text seems  to lack the specificity to the year of 1506 
as claimed by this other  scholar.  As best as I can transcribe the script 
with the aid of a  magnifying glass, the text in apparently impure, medieval 
Latin is as  follows: 
 
            Calliqut  provincia nobilis in ca funt multa genera minararu
            pimeta  (?) alta genera mercantorum que veniutoc multi
            gtib  canella zinimomu zinzibar gario'ol fanvalu  r oc
            omnibus fpeciebus:hec est incu rege portugallie.
 
I consulted William McCulloh, Emeritus Professor of the Classics at my  
alma mater (Kenyon College), and he confirmed that there is not enough  
specificity to tie this text conclusively to something that happened in  1506.  
However, the Portuguese who struggled before and well after  1506 to 
secure/sustain their position in the Subcontinent did achieve a great  naval 
victory 
on the west coast of India in March 1506  known as the famous Battle of 
Cannanore over a combined Arab-Turkish fleet  attempting to drive the 
Portuguese 
out of the region altogether.
 
       So this is a good candidate but  could news of something that 
happened in March 1506 in India get back to Lisbon  and then up to Saint-Die no 
later than April 1507, meaning in less than 13  months?   Possibly but it 
would be tight.  
 
The Circumnavigation of Africa
 
         Travel times are hard to  pin down but in 1488, Diaz reached the 
Cape of Good Hope and a little bit beyond  that in 5-6 months and in 
1497-1498 Da Gama sailed from Lisbon to Calicut in 10  months and 2 weeks in 
the 
first such attempt by a European.  His return  voyage was 11 months.
 
         By 1506-1507, the  Portuguese might have been able to reduce these 
travel time but not  likely under 9 months.
 
         So it seems not  impossible that great naval victory in the 
entrance to the harbor of  Cannanore
explains the boxed text in the Waldseemueller map but one would have  to 
include the extra time required for messages to  get from Lisbon by ship to 
most likely the major French port -- Honfleur -- at  the mouth of the Seine 
and then over to Saint-Die.
 
         As stated in my post a few  hours ago, there is one other 
intriguing fact that points to  the probability that this boxed text was a late 
insertion -- if not the  last insertion -- of text on the Waldseemueller map.  
As far as I can  determine, all the other boxed texts on the Waldseemueller 
map inserted into the  ocean regions of the map are placed inside genuine 
rectangles.
 
         However, that is  not the case with this odd shaped box for  the 
text.  It is in what might be described as an inverted L-shaped  box.  It 
seems to stand out as a case in which someone wanted to insert  some last 
minute information into the map at this specific location but did not  have 
enough room (ocean space in this case) available on the map to insert  the text 
inside a perfect rectangle.  Therefore, they  inserted the text inside an 
odd-shaped box that had t be  wedged between the west coast of India and a 
rather mysterious depiction  of an offshore land mass or island.
 
         Thus, it looks  like an eleventh-hour attempt to backfit some text 
into a map that was  nearly set and ready for printing.  At the moment this 
is the best I can  offer in terms of analysis.  As far as we know, there is 
nothing in the map  that can categorically be dated to a time after 1507.
 
 
The Circumnavigation of South America by 1507
 
        Regarding this issue, I think  that the cartographic evidence -- 
especially what I have described as my  Majestic Lenox-Rosselli-Waldseemueller 
Cartographic  Troika -- plus the remarks by Ringmann and Ludd in 1507, 
those  of Glareanus on his 1510 maps derived from Waldseemueller's maps, and 
Schoener's  explicit reference to a Portuguese circumnavigation in  1515 as 
also conveyed in his 1515 and 1520 globes -- leave no doubt that  there was 
such a circumnavigation by the time Waldseemueller depicted South  America in 
1507 in a way that was not merely  hypothetical.  
 
        Ludd, Ringmann and  Waldseemueller each in their own fashion made 
clear that the source for this  sensitive information came from Portugal, 
although we cannot totally rule  out circuitously via Vespucci who was in the 
Portuguese service from 1500-1504  but was back in Spain no later than 
February 1506 (see  below).   Ringmann's rewrite/update of his August 1505 poem 
 
in time for inclusion in the April 1507 release of Cosmographiae  Introductio 
and the world map is the most revealing, intriguing piece  of evidence. 
 
       All this wipes out the old claim  that in Waldsemueller's mind he 
was simply recycling the shape of South America  as found in the 
Cantino/Caverio maps -- an argument advanced by James Kelly in  commentary on 
my original 
essay in Exploring Mercator's  World (November-December 2002) and also 
recycled by Toby  Lester in his recent book (see page 366). 
 
       But how long would it have taken for  such an illegal, clandestine 
maritime achievement to disseminate (even  if only in limited detail) back to 
Saint-Die in eastern France, if the  Portuguese really got to at least as 
far as Arica on the west coast where  the coastline abruptly shifts to the NW 
and where Chile and Peru meet at about  18 degrees latitude south?
 
       What was the minimum time travel time  required for such an 
achievement?  Here below are some rough  calculations.
 
 
Travel Time Estimates
 
        There are two parts to this  issue:  minimum time to reach the 
Strait and minimum time to reach  Arica.
 
        We know for a fact  that in 1519 it took only 6 months for Magellan 
to reach San  Julian on March 23 1520 where he then had to contend with a 
major mutiny that  stopped the expedition in is tracks for the next six 
months.  What is  the latitude of San Julian?  It is 49 degrees latitude south 
-- 
only two  degrees or so short of the strait -- which only took a couple of 
days for  Magellan to reach after he resumed the expedition when he departed 
San Julian in  mid-October 1520.
 
        Thus total sailing time for  Magellan (i.e. not including the 7 
months sojourn at San Julian) to the  Strait was a just little over 6 months.
 
         How does Vespucci's voyage  with Coelho in 1501-1502 compare?
 
        His entire voyage lasted exactly 16  months.  He departed Lisbon 
circa May 14, 1501.  When did he reach the  50 degrees below the equator as he 
claimed still in sight of the  coastline?
 
       Regarding this question, keep in mind  my proof that Vespucci (not 
Portuguese censors) later falsified  his original account about the coastline 
issue in his letter to Lorenzo  di Medici (see the Ridolfi Letter fragment 
and also the Mundus Novus  version) in the later published Sodorini/Italian 
edition about  this same voyage.  This was a clear case of Vespucci (and  
not anyone else) rewriting his text or account after he realized he had 
revealed  far too much to Medici in a prior letter to him in late 1502 only a 
short  time after completing his first voyage in the service of the Portuguese 
King  Manuel.
 
        So what month was it when  Vespucci says he reached 50 degrees 
along the coast on this voyage?
 
        Again keep in mind that 50 degrees  was just short of the strait -- 
unless of course Vespucci lied and actually  reached the strait's eastern 
opening as I have wondered or pondered in  lectures/writings since 2002 and 
which John Hessler's stealth essay strongly  suggest was in fact the case -- 
namely that Vespucci was hiding how far the  Portuguese had reached along 
that coast to in 1501-1502.
 
        The answer for the  minimum time travel to the Strait is not 
precise given weather would have  been a factor,  However, even in the  
doctored 
Italian-Sodorini edition where Vespucci reverses himself and  claims he was 
way out in the South Atlantic at 50 degrees -- the  Florentine navigator 
dates his revealing celestial observations at that  latitude as having been 
taken on February 15, 1502.
 
         This would mean that it  took Vespucci 9 months (including 
evidently some lengthy sojourns along the  coast that he describes in rich 
detail) 
to reach 50 degrees latitude south  in 1501-1502.  The return leg of his 
trip back to Lisbon was 7  months.  So actually sailing time down to the Strait 
and back would have  been something like 13-14 months -- basically 16 
months minus the sojourns  during which Vespucci and the Portuguese queried the 
natives about the location  of precious metals and obtained rest and enjoyed 
other forms of recreation no  doubt sexual with the naked native women 
descriptions of whom in  Mundus Novus captivated all of Europe.  
 
        Thus, surely the Portuguese  had more than enough time to reach the 
Strait before 1507 and in fact  the evidence including the highly revealing 
legal deposition of Valentine  Fernandez dated May 1503 surely puts that 
discovery well before 1507.
 
        Indeed, Fernandez states  emphatically that the King's ships had 
reached 53 degrees latitude south though  he makes no mention of a Strait -- 
something at the Top Secret level to which he  was most likely not privy.  
Since there is no reason to believe or insist  that Fernandez was a liar -- it 
would appear given the information time lag back  to Lisbon -- that the 
Portuguese may well have discovered the  Strait as early as the second half of 
1502.  Vespucci presumably  could not have been an eyewitness to such a  
discovery since he had completed his voyage and was back in Lisbon  in 
September 1502 -- unless Fernandez was referring in his deposition to  the 
Coelho-Vespucci expedition's return about 8 months  earlier.  
 
        In any case, the  Portuguese had a substantial window or time 
interval in the 1501-1506  period to discover the Strait and perhaps also 
explore 
a portion of the  west coast prior to 1507 as the following analysis also  
supports.     
.
 
Magellan Provides Clues Re:  Western Coastline 
 
         While Vespucci  may not have seen the Strait, Magellan did and he 
took about 5 weeks  after reaching the Strait to navigate through the Strait 
to reach  the Pacific.  Then he sailed more or less due North  after 
entering the Pacific on November 27,  1520.
 
        How far up that western  coastline did he actually sail and when 
and why did he suddenly turn away  from the coast?
 
        Two of the most recent Magellan  scholars (Tim Joyner in 1992 and 
Andre Rossfelder in 2010) give different  dates for the abrupt shift in 
direction  -- the former citing December  19 and the latter suggesting December 
15.  But at what latitude?
 
       Joyner says at 32-33 degrees  latitude south and Rossfelder who -- 
unlike Joyner works evidently more closely  with Sebastian Elcano's surviving 
log -- suggests at around 38 degrees or more  specifically at Punta Lavapie 
and Isla Santa Maria.
 
         But whatever the exact  truth, Magellan sailed around 18-22 days 
(less than one month) northward  and covered at least 14 degrees of latitude 
(Rossfelder) and perhaps as  much as 20 degrees (Joyner) which would have 
been more than halfway to  Arica which is about 34 degrees of latitude north 
of the Strait's western  opening.
 
          Surely it seems  Magellan and perhaps others before him could 
have reached Arica from the western  entrance to the Strait in 2 months or so.  
One could speculate that from  San Jullian to Arica and then back to San 
Julian should have been accomplished  in less than 10 months, probably in 6-8 
months.  
 
         It is also possible that  Arica is about where the Portuguese 
simply might have turned around.  That  point is the primary distinct 
geographical point and Waldseemueller (unless told  otherwise) might have 
conveyed the 
NW drift of the coastline based on just what  the Portuguese sensed from 
that point or what natives might have suggested to  them -- without them 
really having sailed as far as  Acapulco.    
 
        Why did Waldseemueller run the  coastline in a NW direction to 
about 100 longitude west and then straight north  to the pole?  I think he may 
have done that because the Spanish had  determined that the farthest west in 
terms of longitude the Gulf waters reached  or extended was 100 degrees 
longitude west.  Ergo the west coastline of  what we know as Central America 
would have had to extend westward generally at  least as far as that as well.  
At least this is some speculative  analysis concerning Waldseemueller's 
thought process  that suggests that the Portuguese may not have sailed actually 
as far  as Acapulco but instead not much beyond Arica.
 
        In any case, excluding base camp  sojourns along the east coast, 
actual travel or sailing time from  Lisbon to Arica and back probably would 
have been something like 24 months or  two years -- thus not so much time as 
to have been impossible by the Portuguese  in the 1501-1506 time frame, 
especially given their curiosity was  killing them about a possible second door 
to Asia and their need to  determine which side of the maritime demarcation 
line established by the  Treaty of Tordesillas with Spain in 1494 that 
pathway or door (a cape and/or  strait) fell -- on their side of the line or 
the 
Spanish side.  They  evidently sensed that it fell on the Spanish side -- 
hence one trip up the  western coastline was enough to satisfy their curiosity. 
 They concluded  correctly that they still had the shortest route to Asia.
 
 
Magellan's Strange Decision 
 
         For his part, why  did Magellan not continue northward for another 
month or two to the  Equator?  Why not just go all the way, follow the 
coastline back to the  Equator and then onward from there to Asia proper if 
this 
coastline was part of  Asia and therefore the obvious, convenient and safe 
route to get  there, including the Moluccas?  Again he should have been able 
to  reach Arica from the eastern opening of the Strait  in 3 months or so.  
So why dart almost due westward into the vast  ocean?
 
        I have never seen a  clear  or credible answer over the years.  
Joyner is silent in  his excellent biography entitled Magellan.   However, 
Rossfelder says that since one the mutineers whom Magellan had executed  at San 
Julian was a protege or nephew (his text is contradictory on this point)  of 
the all-powerful Spanish Archbishop Juan de Fonseca, Magellan was afraid to 
 sail all the way to Panama for a rest stop (see Rossfelder, In  Pursuit of 
Longitude:  Magellan and the AntiMeridian, (page  286-287).
 
        But what was there to fear  in Panama?  And why and how would 
Magellan know that the west coast of  Panama was part of the same coastline he 
was sailing along, namely that of  Chile?


Rossfelder suggests that Magellan  feared Spanish officials in Panama would 
arrest him for his brutal handling  of the mutineers and the execution of 
Fonseca's nephew.  But Magellan,  if he had continued sailing onto Panama, 
would have reached there long  before these officials would have learned 
circuitously  via Seville/Madrid about the execution and other punishments of 
the 
mutineers ay  San Julian.  It could have easily taken close to a year, not 
until late  1521 before these officials in Panama would learn anything about 
the mutiny  at San Julian.
 
         Meanwhile, why would  Magellan know or even think that Panama was 
connected to the Chilean  coast?  Rossfelder is silent on this issue.
 
         I think that  Magellan knew that they were connected based either 
on prior  Portuguese exploration or a reasonable conclusion from therein by 
1519 and  also because the Spanish probably had explored at least on foot 
the western  coastline of Panama and some points to the north and south by 
1519 when  Magellan set off from Spain.   They may well have established a base 
 on the west coast of Panama and that Magellan was well aware of that when 
he  departed on this voyage in service of Spain.
 
         I do not think that the  fear of being arrested in Panama was a 
factor for turning and sailing into the  vast ocean.  However, I do think that 
Magellan knew in advance in 1519  that the western coastline ran much much 
father to the north.  And of  course anyone can see this clearly in the 18 
pre-Magellan maps, globes and  globe gores which I have catalogued in Table A 
of my book The Magellan  Myth.  
 
        Why  should Magellan have been in the total dark when I have 
catalogued  at least 18 pre-Magellan maps showing a western  coastline?   
Moreover, why should the Spanish court  and Emperor Charles V be totally 
ignorant of 
all these globes and maps  circulating throughout Europe well before 1519 
--  Lenox, Rosselli,  Waldseemuller, Stobnicza, Schoener, the Green globe, 
etc,? 
 
       Finally, the astute Magellan  biographer and famous RGS member, 
Francis Henry Hill Guillemard observed in  1890 that the Capitulations 
(contract) between the Emperor and Magellan  uses "El" the definite article for 
Magellan's goal and contract to find or  locate "The Strait" with the 
implication 
or presumption that there at least was  one.
 
        In any case, since  Magellan knew that the Moluccas -- unlike China 
and Japan -- were  virtually at the Equator, he easily could have sailed 
due north to  the Equator and then gone to the west but he did not do this.  
This  remains the mystery.
 
         What is not a mystery is  the highly misleading and fallacious 
notion of Balboa-Magellan precedency  and regarding European knowledge of the 
Pacific and the display at the  Firestone Library at Princeton University 
last year.  It failed to  take into account my meticulously detailed 
scholarship and rock solid  cartographic/documentation unless there really is 
some 
super-brilliant scholar  out there who thinks that he or she can best me in a 
public debate by exposing  its flaws.  I have yet to hear of any such person 
accepting my  challenge to a public debate.
 
         If nothing happened, if  the Europeans were still in the total 
dark prior to Magellan -- the  orthodoxy to which the misleading Princeton 
exhibition defers and  gives credence  -- there would be no basis for the 
existence of the  long paper trail of documentary evidence, including that of a 
cartographic  nature, which I have uncovered since 2002 and connected into a 
more compelling,  rational account of what the Europeans knew and when they 
knew  it.  
 
Peter  Dickson                                   The foregoing essay posted 
on Maphist is for the benefit of
Arlington,  Virginia                             Maphisters.   Given the 
author's rights under US Copyright Law,
Phone:   703-243-6641                        there should be no 
republication of this text without his    
Email:   [email protected]_ (mailto:[email protected])                prior  
approval.    c Peter W. Dickson, 2010  All Rights  Reserved   
 
          
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