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Sorry I forgot to clip my original post. Take two.

This is a good example of the self-satisfied ignorance that abounds in Soviet 
scholarship these days. Assertions like these can pass as serious 
scholarship--even in respectable journals--only because few among contemporary 
academics are informed or disinterested enough to challenge them. Yet there is 
method in this ignorance. By arguing that Stalin was "intelligent" and a 
committed "ideologue", scholars like Montefiore and now Kotkin intend to prove 
that Stalin was a true representative of original Bolshevism rather than its 
perverter. Yet how can "consistency" be imputed to anyone who claimed that 
socialism could only be established on an international basis, and, contrarily, 
that it could be built in one country--all in the course of a single year 
(1924)?; who could pose as a friend of the peasantry, and paint Trotsky as the 
peasant's enemy in 1926, only to turn around and savage the peasantry in the 
brutal collectivization that began in 1928?; who could claim that capitalism 
was i
 n stable equilibrium in 1926, and claim, with no relation to the facts, that 
it had entered a "third period" of revolutionary upheaval in 1928? Weres any of 
these abrupt turns "ideologically consistent" because they were couched in 
pseudo-Marxist phraseology? Did it ever occur to anyone before Montefiore and 
Kotkin to call Iago or Richard the Third "intelligent" because their petty 
duplicity was effective in achieving short-term ends? And if Stalin was so true 
to the Leninist legacy, why did he find it necessary to finish off not only 
every living member of Lenin's general staff, but their wives and children? And 
can anyone who has read both Trotsky and Stalin, with his static formulae and 
leaden prose, seriously argue that the two were anywhere even remotely on the 
same intellectual plain? The mind boggles!         

Jim Creegan 

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