Something does not add up here

===================================

https://www.washingtonpost.com/news/post-nation/wp/2016/07/10/former-philadelphia-police-commissioner-said-america-is-sitting-on-a-powder-keg/

"Blacks continued to be shot at 2.5 times the rate of whites. About
half of those killed were white, and about half were minorities. Less
than 10 percent of all those killed were unarmed. One-quarter were
mentally ill."

---------------------------------------------


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Race_and_crime_in_the_United_States

Homicide

According to the US Department of Justice, blacks accounted for 52.5%
of homicide offenders from 1980 to 2008, with whites 45.3% and "Other"
2.2%. The offending rate for blacks was almost 8 times higher than
whites (per 100,000), and the victim rate 6 times higher (per
100,000). Most murders were intraracial, with 84% of white homicide
victims murdered by whites, and 93% of black victims murdered by
blacks.[32][33][34]

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If half of murderers are white, and half of murderers are black - then
you might expect cops to kill them in a similar ratio. 50/50. Which
matches the info above. Somewhat.

But how do you get the statistic that cops kill blacks at 2.5 times
THE RATE of whites?

Something tells me there is data manipulation going on here. Is the
Washington Post jumping back and forth between absolute numbers and
rates? I bet it will come up in the comments to the article.

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