Hello!
A fairly simple question maybe, but bear with me please...
Am I correct in my assumption that if e.g. p=2*k*p(1)*p(2) divides M(p(1)),
then p only divides other mersenne numbers with an exponent which is a
multiple of p(1), (and thus cannot divide M(p(2)) )? Is there a proof for
this or am I wrong?
Regards,
Johan Winge
_________________________________________________________________
Unsubscribe & list info -- http://www.scruz.net/~luke/signup.htm
Mersenne Prime FAQ -- http://www.tasam.com/~lrwiman/FAQ-mers
