> -----Original Message-----
> From: Vincent J. Mooney Jr. [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
> Sent: Tuesday, October 26, 1999 2:05 PM
> To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> Subject: Re: Mersenne: (2^p-1)/p == 0 (mod 3) ?
>
>
> 5 is an odd prime. 2^5 = 32 and minus one, is 31. 31 is not
> divisible by 3.
>
Umm... 31 == 1 (mod 3) which holds to 2^p == 1 (mod 3p) below...
>
> At 07:50 PM 10/26/99 +0200, you wrote:
> >Hello all,
> >
> >a simple Number Theory question. Is always
> >
> >(2^p-1) / p ,odd prime p, divisible by 3 ?
> >
> >Then 2^p == 1 (mod 3p) would also hold, can this be used to
> improve the
> >efficiency of a Rabin-Miller probable prime test?
> >
> >Ciao,
> > Alex.
> >_________________________________________________________________
> >Unsubscribe & list info -- http://www.scruz.net/~luke/signup.htm
> >Mersenne Prime FAQ -- http://www.tasam.com/~lrwiman/FAQ-mers
> >
>
> _________________________________________________________________
> Unsubscribe & list info -- http://www.scruz.net/~luke/signup.htm
> Mersenne Prime FAQ -- http://www.tasam.com/~lrwiman/FAQ-mers
>
_________________________________________________________________
Unsubscribe & list info -- http://www.scruz.net/~luke/signup.htm
Mersenne Prime FAQ -- http://www.tasam.com/~lrwiman/FAQ-mers
