You may have heard this one before, so if you have respond A.S.A.P., OK? All
right. I have conjectured the following statement:
The sum of the following series, ((N)!) / ((k!)((N-k)!)) starting at k=1 to
k=(N), is equal to (2^N). If an odd counterexample is found, then an odd
perfect number exists and has factors that are all distinct, and the number
of factors is N. The only thing I found is N = 0 (0! is 1 here), which is 1,
so the number should be prime. So, the only odd, perfect number is 1, since
the only factors of a prime are itself and one. 2(1) = 1 + 1, so 1 is a
perfect number, if you take this minor exception into consideration.
If anyone has proof of this conjecture, please let me know.
_________________________________________________________________
Unsubscribe & list info -- http://www.scruz.net/~luke/signup.htm
Mersenne Prime FAQ -- http://www.tasam.com/~lrwiman/FAQ-mers
