In a message dated 4/29/00 6:31:10 AM Pacific Daylight Time, 
[EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:

<< Good. Now that we are on the topic of perfect numbers, I have proven that
 any odd perfect number must have at least 9 factors. Another boy at my
 school is trying to tell me that all perfect numbers are in the from
 (a^(p-1))(a^p-1), thus showing that there are no odd perfect numbers. Can
 someone please explain this to me? I am quite sure that he is wrong.
  >>

The kid at school probably was talking about even perfect numbers. (a = 2) 
Anyway, the proof I had goes like this, in case you are wondering, because, 
like I said, I was pretty busy.
  Anyway: Here are a couple of things you need to know.
(2(n) + 1) is the formula for odd numbers.  (2^(n) - 1) is always odd, (2^n - 
2) is an odd times 2.  Another is that even + even = even, and even + odd = 
odd.  There is also this Pascal's triangle.

                                              64
                                           32  32
                                         16  32  16
                                        8  24  24  8
                                      4  16 24  16  4
                                     2  10 20 20 10 2
                                   1   6 15  20  15  6 1

You'll notice that this is the same as the regular triangle, except you 
multiply powers of two.  Now for the proof:

_________________________________________________

By definition of an odd, perfect number, with only distinct factors, the 
following must be true, if the odd, perfect number has only two factors:

(2)(2a + 1)(2b + 1) = (2a + 1)(2b + 1) + (2a + 1) + (2b + 1) + 1
(2a + 1)(2b + 1) = 2(a + b) + 2 + 1
4ab + 2(a + b) + 1 = 2(a + b) + 2 + 1
4ab = 2
2ab = 1
This is the same as saying (even = odd), which is an impossibility.  
If you go to three factors, four factors, or even five factors, you'll notice 
a pattern, having to do with the triangle above.  You keep on dividing the 
starting number in half for that triangle.  Watch with 6 factors how it 
relates to the triangle above.

X1 = sum of combinations formed from 6 (abcdef)
X2 = sum of combinations formed from 5 (abcde+abcdf+abcef+etc)
X3 = sum of combinations formed from 4 (abcd+abce+etc)
...
X6 = sum of combinations formed from 1 (a+b+c+d+e+f)

64 * X1 + 32 * X2 + 16 * X3 + 8 * X4 + 4  * X5 + 2 * X6 + 1 =

(32(X2) + 32(X3) + 24(X4) + 16(X5) + 10(X6) + 6)  +  (16(X3) + 24(X4) + 
24(X5) + 20(X6) + 15) + (8(X4) + 16(X5) + 20(X6) + 20)
+ (4(X5) + 10(X6) + 15) +(2(X6) + 6) + 1.

Notice the similarities between this and the Pascal's triangle?  (write the 
triangle if necessary) Now, every row of that triangle equals 64, because of 
the reason in the e-mail sent by the other guy.  Anyway, after subtracting, 
from the above equation gives the middle of the triangle:
                                           32
                                        24  24
                                       16 24 16
                                     10 20 20 10
                                    6 15  20 15 6

And the rows add up to:  (64 - 64), (64 - 32) , (64 - 16), (64 - 8), (64 - 4) 
, and (64 - 2), and this was proven by the last guy's email, since the first 
triangle is just the regular triangle times descending powers of 2:

1         * 64 = 64
1 1       * 32 = 32 32
1 2 1    * 16 = 16  32 16
1 3 3 1 *  8 =   8   24   24   8
etc..

So, this goes to:

64(X1) = 32(2-1)(X3) + 16(4-1)(X4) + (8)(8-1)(X5) + 4(16-1)(X6) + 2(32-1) * 1

This can be divided by two, giving:

32(X1) = 16(2-1)(X3) + 8(4-1)(X4) + 4(8-1)(X5) + 2(16-1)(X6) + (32-1)(1)
which is saying:

even = even + even + even + even + odd
even = even + odd
even = odd

Which is a good enough contradiction.


I explained a whole lot rather than just doing algebra, because we can take 
the same route for the general equation rather than multiplying out, however, 
I think it may have several problems, because it might not apply to the 
general equation.  Any way, I hope this helps.  Maybe someone can do the 
rest, and so the whole world can confidently say that if an odd, perfect 
number exists, then it must be 0 mod ((2n+1)^2).   Then we can go on to 
squares times odd numbers, cubes time odd numbers, etc.  I just hope the 
whole thing is provable, after this.




Hoping and praying that 2^(9025267) - 1 is prime!!!!!!!
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