ph |- ph is not an axiom by your definition, as it has the $e statement ph.

And Metamath doesn't even need to take that as an axiom, within its rules
it can be proven without any previous theorems at all. just look at
dummylink

On Sun, Oct 20, 2019 at 8:27 AM 'fl' via Metamath <[email protected]>
wrote:

>
> Kennington writes "But Lemmon used only deduction rules, with no axioms."
> (1) I'm afraid
> he didn't undertand what he read. It is perfectly impossible to have a
> logical system
> with no axiom. By axiom I mean a $a statement with no $e statement.
>
> It is often said that natural deduction has no axiom. But it is because
> the rule
>
> Gamma, ph |- ph
>
> is implicit. (Where Gamma it the stack of hypotheses.)
>
> And this rule is an axiom even though the unique axiom of natural
> deduction.
>
> (1) http://www.topology.org/tex/conc/diary.php?item=2019052201
>
> --
> FL
>
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