fsumshft.5 doesn't have a "ph ->" antecedent because its purpose is simply 
to specify that B is a substitution instance of A.  We sometimes call this 
"implicit substitution" as opposed to "explicit substitution", which would 
be B = [. ( k - K ) / j ]. A (or just using [. ( k - K ) / j ]. A in place 
of B instead of having a separate hypothesis).

Compare, for example, the implicit substitutions in first 4 hypotheses of 
the deduction form nn0indd.

In order to use a theorem with implicit substitution, the proof usually 
eliminates the implicit substitution hypotheses with a chain of equality 
and/or biconditional theorems.  The hypotheses are then completely 
eliminated, and ph is hardly ever needed to achieve that (if ever).  So we 
rarely bother to add a ph antecedent.  Offhand I can't recall a case where 
it would have helped in practice.

The primary reason we tend to use implicit substitution rather than 
explicit substitution is to obtain shorter proofs.  Note that (in this 
case) the variable j doesn't appear in B i.e. $d j B.  If instead we used 
[. ( k - K ) / j ]. A, we might have to use say reximd in place of reximdv, 
requiring a chain of nf* theorems to eliminate the "not free in" hypotheses 
and maybe making the proof longer.  Or, alternately, we could use 
intermediate dummy variables with cbv* + reximdv, also making the proof 
longer.

There are also theorems like sbcie to convert implicit to explicit.  
Occasionally we have both versions of a theorem such as finds1 (implicit) 
vs. findes (explicit).  Note that the latter hasn't found a use yet.

Norm

On Monday, October 28, 2019 at 5:18:40 PM UTC-4, Olivier Binda wrote:
>
> Why doesn't fsumshft.5 have a ph -> part like other hypotheses ? 
>
> fsumshft.5 [image: |-] [image: (][image: j] [image: =] [image: (][image: 
> k] [image: -] [image: K][image: )] [image: ->] [image: A] [image: =] [image: 
> B][image: )]
> Is the same theorem with ( ph -> ( j = ( k-K ) -> A = B ) )  false ? or 
> stupid ? or unnecessary ?
>
> It looks stronger to me as I probably cannot prove it easily from fsumshtf
>
> I am still grasping at all the subtleties of Metamath, so I may not 
> understand something important here.
>
> Could someone please enlighten me ?
>
> Best regards,
> Olivier
>

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