I asked the following question on mathematics stack exchange:

https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4744694/is-it-legitimate-to-assert-a-propositional-function

> About a year ago, I had a dispute with someone over whether it is 
legitimate to assert a propositional function, as in ⊢ x = x. They said an 
assertion containing free variables is nonsense since a propositional 
function is not a proposition. They also argued that the theorem equid[0] 
in the Metamath Proof Explorer[1], which states that ⊢ x = x where x is a 
set variable, is false since we can show that ∅ ⊨ x = x.
> 
> However, it seems legitimate to assert a propositional function in 
Principia Mathematica:
> 
> > When we assert something containing a real variable, we cannot strictly 
be said to be asserting a proposition, for we only obtain a definite 
proposition by assigning a value to the variable, and then our assertion 
only applies to one definite case, so that it has not at all the same force 
as before. When what we assert contains a real variable, we are asserting a 
wholly undetermined one of all the propositions that result from giving 
various values to the variable. It will be convenient to speak of such 
assertions as asserting a propositional function. (Whitehead and Russell, 
1910)
> 
> I'm curious about whether many mathematicians accept this convention. I 
also want to know if it is true that ∅ ⊨ x = x; I'm not familiar with model 
theory.
> 
> **Reference**
> 
> Whitehead, Alfred North, and Bertrand Russell. 1910. *Principia 
Mathematica, Vol. I*. Cambridge: Cambridge University Press. 
https://archive.org/details/principiamathema01anwh/page/18/mode/2up.
> 
> [0]: https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/equid.html
> [1]: https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/mmset.html

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