There is a convention, which is to use "( A e. V -> ..." in antecedents to
theorems and deduction-form statements and |- A e. _V in inference-form
theorems. In "positive position", you often need to use A e. _V, i.e. in
fvex there is no other reasonable option for what set to say that function
value is a member of without any assumptions. In "negative position", it's
a question of whether to spend one extra elex step in some cases (e.g. 2 e.
RR therefore 2 e. _V therefore I can apply this lemma about sets to 2), or
one extra syntax step to instantiate the V argument (which also takes some
space in proofs). I believe the above convention is derived from some
analysis along these lines, but it's also somewhat historical (it's more
important to have a consistent convention). See the "Is-a-set." section of
https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/conventions.html for more information.

On Wed, Apr 24, 2024 at 3:52 AM heiphohmia via Metamath <
[email protected]> wrote:

> > It functions much like A e. _V would. A proof using this theorem can
> always
> > plug in _V for V but it also could plug in On, RR, or whatever is
> convenient.
> > Perhaps looking at <https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/elex.html> makes it
> clear.
>
> Okay, elements of ZF classes are always sets, so A e. V restricts A from
> being
> proper classes. That begs the question why one would ever use A e. _V
> though.
> Is this just a case where there's no particular convention?
>
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