Consider the following set.mm axioms:

${
    min $e |- ph $.
    maj $e |- ( ph -> ps ) $.
    ax-mp $a |- ps $.
$}

ax-1 $a |- ( ph -> ( ps -> ph ) ) $.
ax-2 $a |- ( ( ph -> ( ps -> ch ) ) -> ( ( ph -> ps ) -> ( ph -> ch ) ) ) $.
ax-3 $a |- ( ( -. ph -> -. ps ) -> ( ps -> ph ) ) $.

${
    ax-gen.1 $e |- ph $.
    ax-gen $a |- A. x ph $.
$}

ax-4 $a |- ( A. x ( ph -> ps ) -> ( A. x ph -> A. x ps ) ) $.

${
    $d x ph $.
    ax-5 $a |- ( ph -> A. x ph ) $.
$}

${
    $d x y $.
    ax6v $a |- -. A. x -. x = y $.
$}

ax-7 $a |- ( x = y -> ( x = z -> y = z ) ) $.

${
    $d x y $.  $d y ph $.
    ax12v $a |- ( x = y -> ( ph -> A. x ( x = y -> ph ) ) ) $.
$}

The question is whether the following statement can be proved from the 
above axioms:

${
    $d x y z $.
    ax8vvv $p |- ( x = y -> ( x e. z -> y e. z ) ) $= ? $.
$}

I named the statement ax8vvv since it's just a version of ax-8 
<https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/ax-8.html> with all setvars disjoint from 
one another. Of course, we are allowed to use the syntactic statement wel 
$a wff x e. y $.

A few years ago, BenoƮt published a paper 
<https://groups.google.com/g/metamath/c/um0Z6o9A1hg/m/w6qa5JC2AwAJ> showing 
that 
the full ax-8 <https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/ax-8.html> (without DV 
conditions) is independent of the above axioms, and that the weaker ax8v 
<https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/ax8v.html> is independent as well (appendix 
B.9). We know that ax-8 <https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/ax-8.html> can be 
recovered from ax8v1 <https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/ax8v1.html> and ax8v2 
<https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/ax8v2.html>, as shown in the proof of ax8 
<https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/ax8.html>.

However, the question of whether ax8vvv is provable in set.mm is not 
mentioned. This made me wonder whether the reason is that the answer is 
obvious (and I missed it), or not known.  

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Since I'm trying to get familiar with MM0/MM1, I'm going to restate the 
question in that language and ask whether it's formalized correctly:

delimiter $ ( ) ~ { } $;
strict provable sort wff;
term wi (ph ps: wff): wff; infixr wi: $->$ prec 25;
term wn (ph: wff): wff; prefix wn: $~$ prec 40;

axiom ax_1 (ph ps: wff): $ ph -> ps -> ph $;
axiom ax_2 (ph ps ch: wff): $ (ph -> ps -> ch) -> (ph -> ps) -> ph -> ch $;
axiom ax_3 (ph ps: wff): $ (~ph -> ~ps) -> ps -> ph $;
axiom ax_mp (ph ps: wff): $ ph $ > $ ph -> ps $ > $ ps $;

pure sort set;
term wal {x: set} (ph: wff x): wff; prefix wal: $A.$ prec 30;

axiom ax_gen {x: set} (ph: wff x): $ ph $ > $ A. x ph $;
axiom ax_4 {x: set} (ph ps: wff x): $ A. x (ph -> ps) -> A. x ph -> A. x ps 
$;
axiom ax_5 {x: set} (ph: wff): $ ph -> A. x ph $;

term weq (a b: set): wff; infixl weq: $=s$ prec 50;
term wel (a b: set): wff; infixl wel: $es.$ prec 40;

def wex {x: set} (ph: wff x): wff = $ ~(A. x ~ph) $;
prefix wex: $E.$ prec 30;

axiom ax_6 {x: set} (a: set): $ E. x x =s a $;
axiom ax_7 (a b c: set): $ a =s b -> a =s c -> b =s c $;
axiom ax_12 {x y: set} (ph: wff y): $ A. y ph -> A. x (x =s y -> ph) $;
theorem ax8vv {a b c: set}: $ a =s b -> a es. c -> b es. c $= '( _ );

Most of the above formalization is borrowed from set.mm0. I noticed that 
ax_12 in set.mm0 differs from ax12v 
<https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/ax12v.html> in set.mm, which I assume is by 
design. I haven't checked whether the two versions are equivalent, but I 
see that peano.mm0 uses the set.mm version of ax12v 
<https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/ax12v.html>, so I guess either one can be 
used?

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