On 2012-06-21 17:22, Simon Perreault wrote: > On 2012-06-21 15:50, Hugo Osvaldo Barrera wrote: >> I have read a great deal regarding IPv6 and IIRC, if I subnet my >> network block, my ISP would have to know it has to route traffic to that >> subnet through the WAN IP address of my router. > > Yes. If they don't allow that, then they don't know what they are doing. > You're not supposed to assign a /48 to a single link. A single link gets > a /64.
But how would they know though which single IP to route the rest of the subnets? I mean, if I assign: 2800:40:402:ffff::1/64 to my router's WAN interface (2800:40:402:ffff::ffff is it's default gateway) 2800:40:402::1/64 to it's LAN interface 2800:40:402::2/64 to one of my clients Doesn't my ISP need to know that traffic to 2800:40:402::1 should be routed through 2800:40:402:ffff::1? > >> The alternative would be to proxy ndp and have OpenBSD forward packets, >> yet I don't see a way to proxy an entire subnet using ndp. > > Right, because you shouldn't do that, especially in IPv6 with the 64 > bits of addressing for a single subnet. > >> Am I missing something perhaps? > > Call the support and ask them for the missing information? > > You're definitely not supposed to bridge. > > Simon > -- Hugo Osvaldo Barrera
