Hi Guys
Thanks for the info..
To clarify the things you asked:
The dialout connection is being done by the firewall, and the masquerading is being done by the firewall too.
I want to know whether iptables can be used to give the same protection on the internal networks on eth0 and eth1, using similar rules.... this despite the fact that eth0 is also being used to dial-up the modem with pptp.
So im guessing its basically
ppp0 (over eth0)--->"iptable rules"--->eth1 for network A.. and
ppp0 (over eth0)--->"iptable rules"--->eth0 (again) for network B.This is what I mean by "same security"
I know it would be safer, as Iain says, to put an extra firewall before net.B, but I am trying to get the networks protected behind at least one layer (for now)...without incurring the cost of buying extra PCs that could be redundant.
Cheers
Steve
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