Greetings,
>Cory:
>
>First, I have never read much Kant. But looking at the way "object" is used
>in the quote above I feel it does not refer to an "object" in the sense of
>subject-object metaphysics but rather along the lines of "observation" or
>"exerience" by our intuition. Could you comment further on this for I do not
>yet see how phenomena and noumena refer to objects.
Kant subtitled the third part of his 'Transcendental doctrine of elements' (which is
encompassed
within his 'Critique of Pure reason'), "The Ground of the Distinction of all Objects
in General into
Phenomena and Noumena." It is therefore surely indisputable that he was using the
terms phenomena
and noumena to refer to objects. As to whether this is the same sense as a
subject-object
metaphysics might give to an object, I have no idea. There is no such thing as
subject-object
metaphysics and so I am not inclined to draw comparisons between Kant and
subject/object
metaphysicians who don't exist.
CORY:
>Also, I notice there is no mention of the term "subject" but it is clearly
>implied by Kant's use of "our sensible intuition" that a subject must be
>present for this phenomena/noumena reference.
Absolutely right. The very point I have made previously and on a number of occasions.
CORY:
>Insofar as "our sensible
>intuition" is entirely subjective, and it is needed for both the phenomena
>and the nounema to arise, must we not ask ourselves what "our sensible
>intuition" is? Is it phenomena or noumena? And if it is neither, what is it?
It is called the human mind and, by definition, it is presupposed by any discussion
about phenomena
and noumena. Again, one of the key points I have been making.
Struan
------------------------------------------
Struan Hellier
< mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
"All our best activities involve desires which are disciplined and
purified in the process."
(Iris Murdoch)
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