--- Jim MCGUIRE <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > The statement that it's "not out of line" to require > that people own > property in the neighborhood in order to vote really > bothers me. It's > clearly out of line to disenfranchise residents of > the neighborhood simply > because they're renters. Is it legal? Perhaps. > Out of line? Unethical? > Discriminatory? Classist? Absolutely.
CN: As a previous member of the Ventura Village board, I feel confident in stating that "residency" is the absolute, number-one requirement. I have NEVER seen someone being prevented from voting because they didn't OWN property. Far from it. Those who own property, be they one, two, or many, are only permitted one voting representative UNLESS they live at the property. Basically what that means is that "business owners" only get one voice per parcel, whereas residents get as many votes per parcel as there are individual living there. What this means is that the resident has voting priority in V.V., which I think is fine. Connie Nompelis Ventura Village (Board Member until two nights ago, when I un-nominated myself for re-election.) __________________________________________________ Do you Yahoo!? Yahoo! Mail Plus - Powerful. Affordable. Sign up now. http://mailplus.yahoo.com _______________________________________ Minneapolis Issues Forum - A City-focused Civic Discussion - Mn E-Democracy Post messages to: mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] Subscribe, Unsubscribe, Digest, and more: http://e-democracy.org/mpls
