A little clarification may give us some light into what you want to achieve. I assume you have two tables, Items and Hardware and that the form in question is bound to the Items table and that the 2 tables are joined on HardwareID (1 to many) Right? What I don't understand is why should the Item field get its value from Hardware table? Is it not bound to the Item field in the Items table? If, on the other hand, you have only 1 table, Hardware, then I don't see the usefulness of the form in this case. Please explain further what you want to achieve and the structure of your database. Regards Liveson
_____ From: [email protected] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of jcombalicer Sent: Saturday, 05 August, 2006 8:57 AM To: [email protected] Subject: [ms_access] MS Access Forms/Tables Problem Afterdate value I have three field in a form namely 1. item_id 2. item 3. hardware_id What i wanted to do was when i type an id in hardware_id which is equal to the hardware_id in my hardware table it will get the value from my table and pass this value to the item field. Hardware Table 1. hardware_name 2. hardware_id [Non-text portions of this message have been removed] Yahoo! Groups Links <*> To visit your group on the web, go to: http://groups.yahoo.com/group/ms_access/ <*> To unsubscribe from this group, send an email to: [EMAIL PROTECTED] <*> Your use of Yahoo! Groups is subject to: http://docs.yahoo.com/info/terms/
