Another question concerning this toppic:
Is it possible to use a property path on the property-ref element?
Somethink like this:
class Entity1 {
public string Name {get;set;}
}
class Entity2 {
public Entity1 Element {get;set;}
}
<class name="Entity2" ....>
...
<key ...... property-ref="Element.Name"/>
...
</class>
On 1 Jul., 12:48, Maik <[email protected]> wrote:
> I know, that this is a bad design, but we also use a legacy database.
> Thanks for your help!
>
> On 1 Jul., 12:04, Stefan Steinegger <[email protected]>
> wrote:
>
> > You should actually avoid this.
>
> > If have to cope with a legacy database, use property-ref:
>
> > class Class1
> > {
> > //...
> > public Guid BusinessId { get; set; }
>
> > }
>
> > class Class2
> > {
> > //...
> > public MyClass1 { get; set; }
>
> > }
>
> > <class name="Class2" table="TABLE2">
> > <!-- ... -->
> > <many-to-one
> > name="MyClass1"
> > class="Class1"
> > property-ref="BusinessId"
> > column="MyTAB1" />
> > </class>
>
> > On 1 Jul., 08:40, Maik <[email protected]> wrote:
>
> > > Hi folks,
>
> > > I have a question, because I couldn't find it by flying through the
> > > manual and google.
>
> > > How do I map a relation on a UniqueKey in the foreign Table?
>
> > > I mean sth. like this:
>
> > > TABLE1:
> > > ID *(PK)
> > > BUSINESS_ID (Unique or NULL)
> > > NAME
>
> > > TABLE2:
> > > ID *(PK)
> > > MY_TAB1 (FK to TABLE1 by BUSINESS_ID)
> > > INFORMATION
>
> > > Thanks for your help
>
> > > Regards,
> > > Maik
>
>
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