On Sun, Nov 1, 2009 at 10:55 PM, David Cournapeau
<da...@ar.media.kyoto-u.ac.jp> wrote:
> josef.p...@gmail.com wrote:
>>
>> array([ Inf,  Inf,  Inf,  Inf,  Inf,  Inf,  Inf,  Inf,  Inf,  Inf])
>>
>> might actually be the right answer if you want a uniform distribution
>> on the real line.
>
> Does it make sense to define a uniform random variable whose range is
> the extended real line ? It would not have a distribution w.r.t the
> Lebesgue measure, right ?
>
> I must confess I am quickly lost in the maths in statistics, though,

No, it wouldn't be a proper distribution. However in Bayesian analysis
it is used as an improper (diffuse) prior, which often replicates
frequentists results. But it's a theoretical derivation, I don't think
anyone tries to simulate this.

To simulate huge uniform integers, I think it should be possible to use
the floating point random numbers and rescale and round them.

Josef

>
> David
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