Hi everybody, According to FFTW http://www.fftw.org/faq/section3.html#whyscaled
the fft is not normalized...hence ifft(fft(y)) = length(y)*y How ever in octave 3.2.4 ifft(fft(y)) = y In the documentation of the function (not the online maual but 'help fft') says "Compute the FFT of A using subroutines from FFTW." Which allows the user to assume that fft is not normalized (you will find that fft is normalized in the example in the online manual of Matlab's fft) http://www.mathworks.com/help/techdoc/ref/fft.html Shouldn't the help of fft have a comment on this? Thanks -- JuanPi Carbajal ----- "I have come to believe that the whole world is an enigma, a harmless enigma that is made terrible by our own mad attempt to interpret it as though it had an underlying truth." -- Umberto Eco ----- www.ailab.ch/carbajal ------------------------------------------------------------------------------ Start uncovering the many advantages of virtual appliances and start using them to simplify application deployment and accelerate your shift to cloud computing. http://p.sf.net/sfu/novell-sfdev2dev _______________________________________________ Octave-dev mailing list Octave-dev@lists.sourceforge.net https://lists.sourceforge.net/lists/listinfo/octave-dev