Hi everybody,

According to FFTW
http://www.fftw.org/faq/section3.html#whyscaled

the fft is not normalized...hence ifft(fft(y)) = length(y)*y

How ever in octave 3.2.4
ifft(fft(y)) = y

In the documentation of the function (not the online maual but 'help fft') says
"Compute the FFT of A using subroutines from FFTW."

Which allows the user to assume that fft is not normalized (you will
find that fft is normalized in the example in the online manual of
Matlab's fft)
http://www.mathworks.com/help/techdoc/ref/fft.html

Shouldn't the help of fft have a comment on this?

Thanks

-- 
JuanPi Carbajal
-----
"I have come to believe that the whole world is an enigma, a harmless enigma
that is made terrible by our own mad attempt to interpret it as though it had
an underlying truth."
-- Umberto Eco
-----
www.ailab.ch/carbajal

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