OK, I see that my questions did get answered. Thanks. 1. On the documentation - yes, reading that section is still unclear. It still seems to say to me that one must set useAutoCommit=0 when using data sources. Also, a small quibble - but a section heading for each attribute would be REALLY useful, along with a table of contents. It is so hard to find the information one needs in the documentation.
2. So what you are saying is that if the ConnectionFactory implementation detects that it is using a datasource, it turns off pooling? Is that the case? Or does something else determine whether it pools or not? thanks, Bonnie MacKellar > -----Original Message----- > From: Armin Waibel [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] > Sent: Tuesday, October 07, 2003 8:16 PM > To: OJB Users List > Subject: Re: ConnectionfactoryPooledImpl in Weblogic, was rollback > problem > > > Hi Bonnie, > > On Mon, 6 Oct 2003 13:27:44 -0400, Bonnie MacKellar > <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> > wrote: > > > No one answered this, but I did find my problem - I needed to set > > useAutoCommit="1" in my repository_database.xml file > > > is the docmentation in > http://db.apache.org/ojb/repository.html#jdbc-connection-descriptor > mistakable? > > > However, I need to understand something. If I am running in > Weblogic, > > using > > a connection pooled data source, > > but NOT using EJBs, and NOT using JTA, is it safe to use > > ConnectionFactoryPooledImpl? > > > yes, because all shipped ConnectionFactory implementation > do not pool DataSources. When using DataSource OJB assume > that the pooling is done by the emittent of the DataSources. > > > Will this cause problems for me down the line? I am feeling > very unsure > > of > > this > > configuration. > > > I don't see any problems in the described > situation > > ...NOT using EJBs, and NOT using JTA, > > regards, > Armin > > > thanks, > > Bonnie MacKellar > > > > -----Original Message----- > > From: Bonnie MacKellar > > Sent: Thursday, October 02, 2003 3:54 PM > > To: '[EMAIL PROTECTED] ' > > Subject: rollback problem > > > > > > > > > > Hi, > > > > I have a simple two step transaction, in which two inserts > occur. I am > > using > > PB broker, with OJB transactions. I am connecting to a data > source in > > Weblogic. I am using rc4. > > > > When a rollback occurs, the first record inserted in the > transaction is > > not > > removed. This is very incorrect, of course. I looked back > in the archives > > for this list, and found a message saying not to use > > ConnectionFactoryManagedImpl if you are using OJB > transactions. Fine. So > > I > > switched to ConnectionFactoryPooledImpl. But the problem > remains. Is > > there a > > known problem with this? > > > > My code is > > try > > { > > broker.beginTransaction(); > > > > broker.store(customer); > > broker.store(audit); > > > > broker.commitTransaction(); > > > > } > > catch (Exception e) > > { > > broker.abortTransaction(); > > logger.error(e.getMessage()); > > } > > } > > > > I am attaching my ojb.properties as well. > > > > Thanks, > > Bonnie MacKellar > > > --------------------------------------------------------------------- > To unsubscribe, e-mail: [EMAIL PROTECTED] > For additional commands, e-mail: [EMAIL PROTECTED] >
