Now after digging for documentation I managed to get a m:n working pretty
easily with the intermediate table in a schema. But I am confused about a
1:n mapping working with just two tables that both have compound keys. For
example I have:
<class-descriptor
class="com.MyTable1Class"
table="Table1"
>
<field-descriptor id="1"
name="field1"
column="field1"
jdbc-type="INTEGER"
primarykey="true"
autoincrement="false"
/>
<field-descriptor id="2"
name="field2"
column="field2"
jdbc-type="INTEGER"
primarykey="true"
autoincrement="false"
/>
<field-descriptor id="3"
name="field3"
column="field3"
jdbc-type="VARCHAR"
/>
<collection-descriptor
name="collectionOfStuffFromTable2"
element-class-ref="com.MyTable2Class"
auto-retrieve="true"
auto-update="true"
auto-delete="true"
>
<inverse-foreignkey field-id-ref="1"/>
<inverse-foreignkey field-id-ref="2"/>
</collection-descriptor>
</class-descriptor>
<class-descriptor
class="com.MyTable2Class"
table="Table2"
>
<field-descriptor id="1"
name="anotherfield1"
column="anotherfield1"
jdbc-type="INTEGER"
primarykey="true"
autoincrement="false"
/>
<field-descriptor id="2"
name="anotherfield2"
column="anotherfield2"
jdbc-type="INTEGER"
primarykey="true"
autoincrement="false"
/>
<field-descriptor id="3"
name="anotherfield3"
column="anotherfield3"
jdbc-type="VARCHAR"
primarykey="true"
autoincrement="false"
/>
</class-descriptor>
My understanding of the documentation in the dtd is that the
inverse-foreignkey elements refer to the field id in Table 2 but I am
confused as to how OJB knows that field1 in Table1Class maps to the column
specified by field-id-ref="1"?? Does it have to do with the order in which
the primary keys specified in the Table1Class descriptor?
Incidentally, I think I have it working, I am just curious about how it
knows to map field1 to anotherfield1 and field2 to anotherfield2.
Long mail for probably a simple question.
Thanks
Tim
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