I should mention have tried both Dial and T38Gateway() commands to dial my ATA.
I have also tried to Answer() the call before dialing the ATA. Bill ________________________________ From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Bill Gibbs Sent: Thursday, February 22, 2007 10:01 AM To: [email protected] Subject: [Openpbx-users] Question about T.38 reinvite I have been playing around with OpenPBX. Long story short, T.38 from my ATA to my OpenPBX server works fine. However, I have an Asterisk 1.2.x box that has a PRI from my DIDs, outbound calling etc. Basically this is where all my VOIP calls from various Asterisk servers are sent for call processing. If I send an inbound call (technically I am using iaxmodem and hylafax to send a test fax) via IAX or SIP to the OpenPBX server that then calls my ATA for a fax test, the OpenPBX server processes the call fine, rings my ATA but whe T.38 starts, it attempts a reinvite that of course my Asterisk acting as the gateway rejects "Not acceptable here" Is there anyway to ONLY do T.38 between OpenPBX and the ATA, since my Asterisk server and OpenPBX are on a low latency, gigabit LAN right next to each other, the normal faxing over ulaw is not a problem. I do have canreinvite=no set on all my peers. Essentially, I only want T.38 on the last call leg between OpenPBX and the ATA. The technology used to get the inbound (or outbound) call from OpenPBX to my PRI gateway shouldn't be doing T.38. Is this possible? Bill
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