In general, you'd need a router to pass from one VLAN to another, and that is still true in OS. However, for your case where you have a VM running some routing software, it's quite possible (likely) that the iptable rules on the host machine are stopping your VM from forwarding out since the source address of the packet is not that of the guest that it knows about.
Randy On Fri, Dec 20, 2013 at 11:50 AM, Abbass MAROUNI < [email protected]> wrote: > Hello, > > Is it true that a traffic from one OpenStack virtual network to another > have to pass by an OpenStack router ? (using an OpenVirtual switch as the > L2 ). > > I'm trying ti use a VM as a router between 2 OpenStack virtual networks > but for some reason I'm not able. > > Appreciate any insights, > > > Best regards, > Abbass > > _______________________________________________ > OpenStack-dev mailing list > [email protected] > http://lists.openstack.org/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/openstack-dev > >
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