>From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] > > >>So we are back to Carson's question: what US Law did >>Manuel Arias violate. And if he was arrested _before_ he entered the >>USA, that is before he passed immigration, The US (again) violated >>international law. >> >> > >Precisely which priniciple of international law, treaty, or convention are >you relying on as authority for the the idea that that a nation doesn't have >jurisdiction over persons (other than those with diplomatic status, of course) >who are physically present within their territory but who haven't been formally >admitted by that nation's immigration authorities? > >
The have the right to refuse admission and detain the person until a plain leaves for that person's country or have the right to call in a representative of that person's country from the ambassy. They surely don't have the right to harrass and menatlly and physically torture that person. And what your beloved "Lacey act" is" ... that is not international but US law ... No "Lacey Act" has ever been passed in any European country. Guido Dr. Guido J. Braem
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