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On 12/06/2010 03:30 PM, jc wrote:
> 
> 
> Sent from my iPhone
> 
> On Dec 6, 2010, at 6:21 PM, Marc Petit-Huguenin <[email protected]> wrote:
> 
> On 12/06/2010 02:34 PM, jc wrote:
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> On Dec 6, 2010, at 5:12 PM, Marc Petit-Huguenin <[email protected]
>>>> <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
>>>>
>>>> More questions, comments and nits:
>>>>

[..]

>>>> A.20. Section 5.7, "If the message is not fragmented, then both the
>>>> first and
>>>> last fragment are set to 1..."
>>>>
>>>> If the first fragment bit is set to 1 when the message is fragmented
>>>> and is also
>>>> set to one when the message is not fragmented, then it is always set
>>>> to 1, so
>>>> what is the point of having it in the first place?
> 
>> Because it IS the first and last fragment.

The question is not about the last fragment bit, but about the first bit, which
is defined as "fragmented" in the first quote and as "first fragment" in the
second quote below.  If the first definition is correct, then it is redundant,
as I explained above.  If the second definition is correct, then the first
definition must be fixed.

> 
>>>>
>>>>> I think you misread. There are two fragment flags, begin and end.
> 
> Here's the quotes:
> 
> Section 5.3.2: "If the high bit (0x80000000) is set, it indicates that the
> message is fragmented."

I quoted it wrong:

"If the high bit (0x80000000) is set, it indicates that the message is a 
fragment."

Not "the first fragment"

> Section 5.7: "If the message is not fragmented, then both the first and last
> fragment bits are set to 1..."

- -- 
Marc Petit-Huguenin
Personal email: [email protected]
Professional email: [email protected]
Blog: http://blog.marc.petit-huguenin.org
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