Can someone please explain to me again why magnification and eyepoint are
not the same? It seems to me, that for any given % (H&V field of view), the
resulting magnification with a true 50mm lens would pretty much tell you the
eyepoint would be about the same, right? I know I'm missing something here,
but since I'm missing it, I don't know what it is I'm missing......
Thanks,
Ed
----- Original Message -----
From: "Erwin Vereecken" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Monday, February 12, 2001 5:22 AM
Subject: MZ-S viewfinder magnification
> Hi,
>
> Like most I was a bit disappointed by the 0.75x viewfinder magnification.
>
> However I rechecked
> http://www.smu.edu/~rmonagha/mf/viewfinder.html
>
> The short list of the latest (in this article) top model camera's
autofocus
> AND manual focus:
>
> Canon EOS1n : 0.75x
> Contax RTSIII: 0.75x
> Leica R8: 0.76x
> Minolta 9xi: 0.76x
> Nikon F5: 0.75x
> Olympus OM-4: 0.75x
>
> And now also Pentax MZ-S, which I suspect will be the most expensive 35mm
> Pentax for now: 0.75x
>
> What are we overlooking?
> One cannot say it has something to do with size or price ticket after
> looking at this list.
> Also the difference in a 96% vertical coverage, like the R8, and 92%,
like
> it seems to be in the new Pentax, is only 2% on either side, so saying the
> top camera's do this to see the LCD info better makes no sense either.
>
> Now all seven major brands of camera are doing this, regardless of size or
> price ticket of the camera, regardless of autofocus or manual focus.
>
> The question is WHY? They are not all stupid are they :)
>
> Erwin
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
> -
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>
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