On 1/09/07 10:30 AM, "Godfrey DiGiorgi", <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>> What about the use of "would have" for "had"? As in, "If I would >> have written it properly, nobody could have been offended". >> Correct US use? It sounds diabolical to me. >> 8-) > > It's a colloquialism or vernacular in US English. (I'm not a > linguist, the distinction is a little vague to me.) Understood and > acceptable in casual conversation but not seen in written prose or > formal 'correct' speech. I use those sentences but if they are colloquial, I have to know what the proper use of them to describe the same situations in more formal letter etc. I did not know there was anything wrong with those expressions. BTW, I have nothing against "proper" or "correct" U.S. English. They are often more rationalized and save ink. (Color instead of colour etc, but not night/nite or through/thru unless in email etc) Ken -- PDML Pentax-Discuss Mail List PDML@pdml.net http://pdml.net/mailman/listinfo/pdml_pdml.net
