Helmut, list

Again, I think it’s important to define terms. What do you mean by ‘justice’? 

Its meaning can be very different - after all - the 16th century burned people 
at the stake to ’save their souls’ from heresy [similar to modern day Iran]; 
socialists consider that private property is ‘unjust’; and so on..

> On Jan 18, 2026, at 7:52 AM, Helmut Raulien <[email protected]> wrote:
> 
> Edwina, List,
>  
> This was my supplement: "I think I have to explain what I mean, but I think, 
> Kohlberg has done that much better than I could, with his book: "From is to 
> ought, how to commit the naturalist fallacy, and get away with it". Well, I 
> think, that, if you assign the "is" to science, and the "ought" (societal 
> norms) to metaphysics, there is a gap. But if you show the derivance of 
> "ought" from volition, or the possibility of volition, see e.g. the 
> categorical imperative by Kant, then this gap is bridged."
>  
> For Kohlberg, justice is central, not just one value out of a bag of values. 
> With the the categorical imperative (Kant) understandable like: It is 
> impossible to want to live in a society, in which justice does not exist. 
> This is an ontological, not a deontological statement, and therefore 
> scientific (logical), not metaphysical. That is why I think, that the 
> "oughts", for whom you can show, that they are derviances of (the possibility 
> of) "wants" (volitions), are in fact "is"-es, and bridge the gap between 
> metaphysics and science. If I am right, that ontology belongs to science, and 
> deontology to metaphysics, that is. Or, if I am not right in this case, then 
> there is a part of deontology, that is science, and another part, pure 
> opinion, that is metaphysics. Then you can tell, which societal norms are 
> corrobatable or refutable with the scientific method, and which are not. 
>  
> Maybe too far-fetched, I don´t know: Is "justice" even reducible to, or a 
> derivance of, the physical law of action and reaction?
>  
> Best, Helmut
> 17. Januar 2026 um 17:48
> "Edwina Taborsky" <[email protected]>
> wrote:
> Helmut, list
>  
> I think it’s important to define terms. What do you understand by ’the 
> scientific method’? 
>  
> I consider the scientific method to be, as Peirce outlined in his article 
> ‘Fixation of Belief’  where
>  
>  ‘it is necessary that a method should be found by which our beliefs may be 
> determined by nothing human. But by some external permanency- by something 
> upon which our thinking has no effect”…It must be something which affects, or 
> might affect, every man…the method must be such that the ultimate conclusion 
> of every man shall be the same.Such is the method of science. Its fundamental 
> hypothesis, restated in more familiar language, is this: There are real 
> things, whose characters are entirely independent of our opinions about them; 
> those /reals affect our senses according to regular laws, and, though our 
> sensations are as different as are our relations to the objects, yet, by 
> taking advantages of he laws of perception, we can ascertain by reasoning how 
> things really and truly are….5.384
>  
> Two things to note:
> 1] our beliefs must be determined by nothing human; ie, the conclusions must 
> be such that the subjective relativism of opinion [ whether held by tenacity, 
> authority or a priori] have no relevance.  Essentially this means that 
> objective evidence confirming a hypothesis must be accepted by all according 
> to the methods used to ‘measure’ that evidence. 
> 2] the conclusion is therefore fallible, dependent on both the hypothesis and 
> the evidence 
>  
> Now in political ’science’, psychology, philosophy, sociology - such an 
> infrastructure of a requirement for objective verification does not exist. 
> Instead - what we find are OPINIONS. These opinions are stated as logical, 
> rational and held up as valid by virtue of tenacity, authority, a priori. But 
> there is no empirical objective evidence such that the opinions are the same, 
> ultimately, for every man.
>  
> I’m sure you are aware of all the heated debates in these fields over many 
> years. For example, closer to home,I happen to completely disagree with the 
> views of JAS and Gary R on the ‘blackboard analogy, where they posit that the 
> black board is operative in a primitive Thirdness [ Gary R’s term is 
> ‘aboriginal’]; I reject that and maintain that there is no such thing as a 
> primitive Thirdness and that the blackboard is instead, Firstness as 
> potentiality.
>  
> There is obviously NO way that these two opinions can be scientifically 
> validated; they have to remain as two different opinions - and reasoning and 
> logic cannot prove the validity of either one. And there is no objective 
> empirical evidence. 
>  
> Therefore - understanding science as requiring objective evidence and 
> fallibility of the hypothesis subject to this objective evidence, I consider 
> that political science, psychology, philosophy etc are not sciences - even 
> though they may be argued with logical methods - 
>  
> An example of logic and ’non-science’ can found in the well known Barbara 
> syllogism:
> All men are wise
> Socrates is a man
> Therefore Socrates is wise.
>  
> The above is as an example of logical reasoning - totally valid. The 
> objective verification is the problem, ie.that first premise ‘all men are 
> wise’ - is that verifiable? 
>  
> Regards
> Edwina
>  
>  
>  
>  
> 
> 
> On Jan 17, 2026, at 10:48 AM, Helmut Raulien <[email protected]> wrote:
> 
> Edwina, List,
>  
> How are societal norms not a matter of the scientific method? Are politology, 
> psychology, philosophy, sociology not sciences?
>  
> Best, Helmut
> 16. Januar 2026 um 19:50
> "Edwina Taborsky" <[email protected]>
> wrote:
> Gary R, List
>  
> In an offlist conversation between myself and Gary R, Gary posted the below:
>  
> What I quoted of yours was written before you discussed hypotheses as being 
> metaphysical, something which I find peculiar but quite interesting. I think 
> it is worth exploring further. These quotations are, I think, relevant to the 
> discussion:
>  
> “Every attempt to understand the universe involves some metaphysics.”
> CP 1.129
> 
> “Metaphysics is a science, in the same sense in which physics is a science.”
> CP 6.6
> 
> “Metaphysical propositions are to be judged in the same way as other 
> scientific hypotheses.”
> CP 6.13
> Exactly. Thanks for the quotes. That’s exactly my point. I understand 
> ‘hypothesis construction’ in science to be ‘metaphysics’ - and, as Peirce 
> points out, should be subject to the ‘same approach as other scientific 
> hypotheses’ ie, open to fallibility via empirical tests. 
>  
> And that’s why I caution about metaphysics that is used in the non-fallible 
> ‘fixation of belief tactics of tenacity, authority and a priori, which are 
> basic to ‘seminar room metaphysics’, and are held by emotional commitment and 
> not open to evidentiary fallibility. 
>  
> These are the foundation of religions, societal norms, etc - even in medical 
> and other belief systems [remember when swallowing tapeworms was advised for 
> weight loss?] - and should be open to empirical scrutiny.. In religions, of 
> course, these must be accepted or you are defined as a ‘heretic’…I do not 
> deny the obvious societal advantages of collectivist beliefs; in our species 
> - they are necessary since our knowledge base is collectivist rather than 
> genetic.  But - we still remain as individuals and able to think as such - 
> and since we operate also in 2ns, then, we must require factual [2ness type] 
> evidence. 
>  
> Edwina
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