Edwina, List: In Peirce's terms, would it not be right to say that the representamen, object, and interpretant need not EXIST at all? A qualisign or legisign does not exist unless and until it is embodied, but we can still talk about it as a REAL triadic sign apart from any such particular instantiation. The lead-pencil streak exists as a triadic sign of a geometrical line, but its object is purely hypothetical. The bullet-hole exists as a triadic sign of a gunshot, but its (immediate) interpretant is never actualized unless someone attributes it as such.
Regards, Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA Professional Engineer, Amateur Philosopher, Lutheran Layman www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt - twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt On Tue, Dec 29, 2015 at 7:11 PM, Edwina Taborsky <tabor...@primus.ca> wrote: > Sung, please don't tell me what I meant. You aren't The Teacher here, but > just a debater among debaters - and one who hasn't read Peirce but chooses > to consider that his views on Peirce are always correct. > > I repeat - the 9 Relations are not dyads; that means that they aren't > dyadic relations because a dyad operates between two existential nodes - > and the Object-Representamen-Interpretant do not exist 'per se' each in > themselves. They exist within the interactions...Such semiosic interactions > may not be with a human agent; a cell can semiosically interact with > another cell and needs no human involvement. > > As Peirce noted, the semiosic triad is NOT made up of a collection of > dyadic relations. Your mechanical reductionism is not Peircean. > > Edwina. > >
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