Jerry,

You wrote,
  > The archaic term "special sciences" has little if any meaning in the 
structure of science today. I wonder what you are seeking to communicate by 
repeating the notion of "special" in this context?
The main reason that it has little if any meaning today is that the word 
"special" has become redundant in the phrase "special sciences," a process 
already underway in Peirce's time. A "science" today in everyday parlance is 
that which Peirce called a "special science." I was explaining why, on 
peirce-l, people somehow don't use the phrase "empirical science" and I was 
explaining it in Peircean terms.

The _idea_ expressed by the phrase "special sciences" certainly remains 
relevant to the structure of science. Even today, when distinctions need to be 
made, people sometimes resort to the positivists' 'formal science - factual 
science' distinction, usually putting math and logic in formal science, and 
sciences of forces, matter, life, and people into the factual sciences - pretty 
much Peirce's 'idioscopy' or 'special sciences.' People (including 
philosophers) now don't seem sure how to class philosophy even when they do 
think that it is a discipline of knowledge and research (rather than a literary 
pursuit or whatever). Statistics might be placed in the formal sciences because 
it's so mathematical, or placed in the factual sciences if one regards it as 
empirical like physics, biology, etc, perhaps, like Russell, regarding it as 
the first and most general empirical science. That sort of classificational 
uncertainty suggests a classificational paradigm that's just too weak

But what's going on today, as far as I can tell, is that most people to whom 
such questions might occur for a moment in the course of their work don't care. 
They already know that math (deductive), statistics (inductive), philosophy 
(people disagree), and natural/human sciences (hypothetico-deductive when 
possible) are all different things, how much more do they feel a need to know 
about it?

Peirce's classification of the sciences (and maths) remains one of the last 
serious 'deep' efforts at science classification (excepting the American 
Mathematics Society's Mathematics Subject Classification and Bourbaki's efforts 
at math classification). Birger Hjørland (Denmark): "There is not today (2005), 
to my knowledge, any organized research program about the classification of the 
sciences in any discipline or in any country. As Miksa (1998) writes, the 
interest for this question largely died in the beginning of the 20th century." 
http://www.iva.dk/bh/Core%20Concepts%20in%20LIS/articles%20a-z/classification_of_the_sciences.htm.
 

You wrote, 
  > The modern usage of "object", either mathematical or philosophical, is, in 
my opinion, remote from the notion of thing.  In the modern sciences a thing is 
marked by its properties - categorized in terms of the systems of units and 
measured in terms the same system of units. CSP refers to these as "qualisigns" 
 and, if the reference is specific, to "sinsign" (inferring indexical 
representation.)
I was talking about Peirce's conception of object, not contemporary ones. I 
don't know how the word "object" is used in biology. In Anglo-American 
philosophy, people seem to use "object" as a formal word for "thing." Quine, a 
recent philosopher, said that mathematical existence statements commit one to 
the existence of "abstract non-linguistic objects." Abstract non-linguistic 
things. There is an inclination to restrict the use of the word "object" to 
particular things (as opposed to generals).  E.J. Lowe 
http://www.cs.vassar.edu/~weltyc/fois/fois-2001/keynote/ has a four-category 
ontology: _kinds_ (substantial universals), _attributes_ (relational universals 
and property-universals), _objects_ (substantial particulars), and _modes_ 
(relational particulars and property-particulars, also known as "tropes").

Peirce does not define the qualisign as a thing that is marked by properties, 
measured or otherwise. He defines the qualisign as a quality, a First, that 
stands as a sign. He does not define the sinsign as a thing marked by 
properties, measured or otherwise. He defines the sinsign as an individual, a 
particular fact, a Second, that stands as a sign. In Peirce's system, a sinsign 
does not 'infer' or imply indexical representation; it may be an index or an 
icon, and that icon may be an image lacking an attached index referring to a 
particular object.

You wrote,
  > While this listing is useful, it misses the basic point.  That is, a 
philosophical object or a mathematical object does not carry the notion of 
necessity of measurable properties - such as mass, volume, length, density and 
so forth. When CSP, in his primitive triad, wrote of Things - Representation - 
Form, he did not include the term 'object' as it fails the representational 
quality.
Peirce considered Archimedean mechanics to be philosophical, and that seems to 
have implications for his conception of philosophical objects as to measurable 
properties. But in any case I don't see why you'd have me stopping amid a 
general discussion to note that, rather obviously, mathematical and 
philosophical objects (usually) lack mass, physical velocity, etc. I suspect 
that you've accepted some transference of sense where the word "thing" or 
"object" starts to imply "physical/material thing/object with measurable 
physical properties" as a result of habitual use of the word "thing" or 
"object" in context of physical or material science, so that the use of 
"object" in another sense sounds odd and worth noting to you. Many people 
accept such a transference of sense, which is why I periodically note that, by 
"object," Peirce means anything you can talk or think about and that he doesn't 
usually mean "object" in some narrower sense. 

As regards the difference between "thing" and "object" aside from formality of 
expression (and Heideggerian approaches), you haven't expressed, and I don't 
see, _what_ is the difference between them that you refer to. 

In general, you seem to be getting at an idea that seems like it could well be 
interesting, but it might be a whole lot clearer if you weren't trying to 
confine it to the form of an objection to a pretty unobjectionable rendition of 
Peirce's notion of 'object.'

As regards "Things - Representation - Form," back on October 5th you quoted 
Peirce from W1, p. 256, Harvard Lecture VIII, Forms of Induction and Hypothesis 
- from 1865 which is very early.
  > The first distinction we found it necessary to draw - the first set of of 
conceptions we have to signalize-form a triad

  > Thing  Representation       Form.  

  > ... The thing is that for which a representation might stand prescinded 
from all that would constitute a relation with with any representation. The 
form is the respect in which a representation might stand for a thing, 
prescinded from both thing and representation
It's hard to see why you think that Peirce used "Thing" instead of "Object" 
because it fails the representational quality. He did not explain it in that 
way, and he did say that the thing is "prescinded from all that would 
constitute a relation with any representation," even though the representation 
stands for said thing. As to conjecture, it is possible that he preferred 
"Thing" because he was more Kantian back in 1865, and Kant often said "Ding"; 
also Peirce was discussing the "Thing" as hypothesized and unknowable, whereas 
"Object" suggests something thrown upon the thinker (or whatever person) and 
not so hidden noumenally. Peirce soon enough rejected the idea of the 
unknowable thing-in-itself.

One also sees that Peirce there defines 'Thing', 'Representation', and 'Form' 
pretty much as he later defined (in "On a New List of Categories" 1867) 
'Object', 'Representamen', and 'Ground', respectively. His 'Thing' became his 
'Object'.

Again, I get the sense that you're trying to raise interesting issues that 
shouldn't depend on particular ways of construing or misconstruing Peirce, and 
maybe you should raise them more directly and clearly.

Best, Ben

----- Original Message ----- 
From: Jerry LR Chandler 
To: PEIRCE-L@LISTSERV.IUPUI.EDU 
Cc: Benjamin Udell 
Sent: Saturday, December 03, 2011 10:49 PM
Subject: Re: [peirce-l] SLOW READ: On the Paradigm of Experience Appropriate 
for Semiotic


Gary, Ben, Steven, List: 


With regard to alternative interpretations of Steven's philosophy, a few 
further comments appear to be called for.


Ben, while I admire your faithfulness to Peircean text, I do think that we must 
constantly keep in mine that between 100 and 150 years have past sense CSP 
wrote.  During this time, the sciences and mathematics have created new meaning 
for many.many, many terms that CSP used.  Knowledge of the history of science 
becomes a key element in interpreting CSP views.

  Experience.  One way to get a handle on what Joe is saying about experience 
and the empirical is Peirce's emphasis on mathematics as experimentation on 
diagrams. The result of this in Peircean discussions on peirce-l that I've 
noticed, is an avoidance of the phrase 'empirical science.' Special sciences 
(physical, chemical, biological, human/social) involve reliance on _special_ 
classes of experience, _special_ experiments, to study _special_ classes of 
positive phenomena. The title of the book _The Mathematical Experience_ is 
entirely congenial to the Peircean outlook. Cenoscopic philosophy, in Peirce's 
view, deals with positive phenomena in general, not by special classes. I once 
found Peirce discussing what he meant by "positive" but unfortunately I didn't 
make a note of it. I don't recall Peirce anywhere saying that mathematics 
studies 'hypothetical phenomena' or something like that. But he does see 
experimentation and experience in mathamatics, in its study - there are all 
kinds of things in mathematics that one cannot make do whatever one wishes.

The archaic term "special sciences" has little if any meaning in the structure 
of science today. I wonder what you are seeking to communicate by repeating the 
notion of "special" in this context?

  As regards Peirce's use of the word 'object,' one could call it a fancy word 
for 'thing.'  

The modern usage of "object", either mathematical or philosophical, is, in my 
opinion, remote from the notion of thing.  In the modern sciences a thing is 
marked by its properties - categorized in terms of the systems of units and 
measured in terms the same system of units. CSP refers to these as "qualisigns" 
 and, if the reference is specific, to "sinsign" (inferring indexical 
representation.)

  It's a semi-technical term for 'thing' and indicates that one is speaking at 
least somewhat formally, while the word 'thing' indicates a minimum of 
formality of reference. 'Object' can refer to anything that one can think of, 
anything that one can discuss. It can be a countable object or it can be stuff 
(a term which some philosophers embraced at some time during the 20th Century). 
It can fictive, like Prince Hamlet. It's a very bare conception - hard to say 
how it differs from _ens_. 

While this listing is useful, it misses the basic point.  That is, a 
philosophical object or a mathematical object does not carry the notion of 
necessity of measurable properties - such as mass, volume, length, density and 
so forth. When CSP, in his primitive triad, wrote of Things - Representation - 
Form, he did not include the term 'object' as it fails the representational 
quality.


Thus I think Gary wrote a very perceptive analysis of the original posting. 


Cheers


Jerry

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