Subject: Re: Sinsign, Legisign, Qualisign - help!
From: "Benjamin Udell" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Date: Mon, 19 Jun 2006 18:14:24 -0400
X-Message-Number: 10
Jerry, Gary, list,
A number of recent posts have addressed the topics of:
On Jun 19, 2006, at 1:05 AM, Peirce Discussion Forum digest wrote:
Re: Sinsign, Legisign, Qualisign
I am seeking help in understanding the importance of these terms to =
individual scholars.
The definitions are reasonably clear, at least to me.
At issue is the question of why are these terms important to =
understanding human communication.
To Peirce, logical process =3D representational process, and is not
a =
specifically human or intelligent-life phenomenon, a chapter in the =
books of psychology, sociology, history, even if these books covered =
reasoning creatures other than homo sapiens which is the only clear =
example of which we know (SETI hasn't found ET, at least not yet). =20
Instead, to Peirce, humans are a special logical phenomenon -- he
might =
assent to a current phrase like "logic processors" though not in the =
computer sense (deductive, with strict algorithms, etc.). For my
part, I =
would say that "logicality" is general like statisticality or (in
the =
information-theoretic sense) information.
So these terms (signsign, legisign, qualisign) are important in =
understanding the logical possibilities which human communication
tends =
to actualize. IMHO the importance is not so very different from the =
importance of aerodynamics to the evolution and anatomy of winged =
insects, pterosaurs, birds, bats, flying organisms generally. But I =
think that a more exact analogy would be the relationship of =
probability, statistics, and, as a general mathematical &
statistical =
subject, stochastic processes, to matter.=20
In the Peircean system, terms like qualisign/sinsign/legisign are
also =
important, or regarded as destined to be important, in
understanding the =
possibilities realized in metaphysics -- questions of ontology, =
questions of God, freedom, immortality, and (philosophical)
questions of =
space, time, matter, etc. This is implicit in Peirce's
classification of =
logic as a field which does not presuppose metaphysics but which is =
presupposed by metaphyiscs.
The appending of three unusual prefixes to the concept of a "sign"
is =
clearly a creative use of language.
The apparent (mechanical) objective is to form three new
categories as =
derivatives of the parent word, sign.
Could one imagine other prefixes to the word sign?
Peirce imagined quite a few other prefixes to the word sign. But =
presumably you mean such as to make a semantic distinction, not
merely a =
morphological improvement.
Could one imagine more than three other prefixes?
Your question would be helpfully clarified if you stated it directly =
instead of morphologically. Obviously one can imagine, so to speak,
many =
more classes of signs, and Peirce certainly did. Can one imagine a =
classification into a 4-chotomy of signs? Of course one can, but,
for =
better or worse, it would be unPeircean. Triadism is built deeply
into =
Peirce's semiotic.
How is this context important in distinguishing among paths of
usages?
It's a way of distinguishing between specific occurrences of signs,
the =
appearances of signs, and the general "meaning" or habitual =
'conventional' interpretation of a sign. (The symbol's
interpretant, in =
being an inferential outcome, usually goes beyond such conventional =
significations.) For many practical and theoretical purposes,
English =
"horse" and Spanish _caballo_ are the same legisign. "Horse" and =
_caballo_ won't be regarded as the same qualisign (except by those
for =
whom all human words are indistinguishably the same qualisign).
"Horse" =
and _caballo_ won't be regarded as ever being the same sinsign
(except =
by those for whom pretty much all human occurrences are one single =
undecomposable occurrence).
What other terms might be substituted for these terms?
Peirce himself offered, at various times, at least three sets of
words =
for the same trichotomy of logical terms:
Tone, token, type.
Qualisign, sinsign, legisign.
Potisign, actisign, famisign.
One might call them:
a quality-as-a-sign, a singular-as-a-sign, and a general-as-a-sign.
He at least mentioned other words as candidates as well.
Do these terms impact the concept of a grammar?
It depends on the grammar. If this were some other forum, your =
conception of "grammar" might be implicitly understood and accepted. =
Here, in a philosophical forum which happens to be a crossroads of
many =
specialties and traditions, you need to define it and state the
context =
and tradition from which you are drawing your sense of the word, in =
order to make yourself widely understood.
Is this ad hoc extension of the concept of sign desirable for =
mathematics?
How does it contribute to the mathematical usages of signs?
You specified neither the "hoc" nor the basal concept of which you =
characterize Peirce's terms as an extension. I guess everybody
likes to =
think of his or her concept as the genus and of the other forms of
the =
concept as the specializations. But you haven't said what your
concept =
is, so there's no way to judge the plausibility of your
characterization =
of it as an ad hoc extension.
Peirce would probably argue that semiotic is desirable for
philosophy =
about mathematics. His classification of semiotic (aka logic aka
sign =
studies) as part of philosophy is his statement that semiotic =
presupposes mathematics and that mathematics does not presuppose =
semiotic.
Nobody actively participating on peirce-l has self-identified as a =
mathematician, but perhaps some peirce-lister could say whether any =
mathematician has commented on the possibilities of the =
qualisign/sinsign/legisign conception's contributing to mathematical =
usages of signs. Maybe somebody could say whether Peirce himself
said =
anything on the subject.
Is it desire to bring the concept of 'many' into the concept of
'sign' =
in this manner? Why?
I'm not sure what you mean by "to bring the concept of 'many' into
the =
concept of 'sign' in this matter." However, in a general way, the =
Peircean answer is that logic is semiotic and is more basic than =
metaphysics. Peirce defined and pursued semiotic as a philosophical =
field, not as a field in linguistics, which is concerned with
language =
as a concrete historical phenomenon involved especially with _homo =
sapiens_ and as may turn out to be involved with intelligent life =
elsewhere than Earth, and as may become involved with such
intelligent =
life as _homo sapiens_ or its heirs eventually breed or engineer.
Best,
Ben Udell
I presume that many readers of this list are teachers and have =
lectured on these terms. I have been struggling with these terms for =
some time and hope that knowledgable Peircian students can explain
the =
importance of this seemingly disconnected usage of grammar from
various =
perspectives.
Cheers
Jerry