This is the subject of the Brenner thesis, although Brenner poses it as, why
England anf not France or Poland? His answer is that in England, patterns of
land tenure and class struggle led to a large dispossesed class of free
agrarian labor that had no property, but in France and Poland, smallholders
were able to keep a grip on their land in the face of the the breakup of
feudalism. That is the "standing on one foot" version. For the longer
version, read his class paper. --jks
>
>As you are on the general topic anyway, and since Michael is inviting 100
>word answers to presumably complex topics, could somebody please explain
>why
>capitalism originated in England as opposed to Spain. I am trying to
>understand the connection between slavery and imperialism and the
>origination of capitalism. Was not Spain the most powerful nation in
>Europe
>in the 16-17th centuries and in possession of large colonies which it
>exploited? If so, why capitalism in England and not Spain? Or is the
>assumption of my question wrong?
>
>Thanks,
>
>David Shemano
>
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