Lisa:

In Marx's political economy, commodity production is a necessary condition
for the creation of surplus value. That is because value as a concept and
as a quantity (exchange value) is well-defined only for market economies.
Surplus. of coursde, does not require markets. But in feudalism and
slavery it does not take a value form. It is merely physical surplus. That
is because there is nothing that makes the labor content of different
products (or services) commensurable. All labor is concrete, i.e.,
incommensurable with other labor elsewhere, thus expressing value only in
the abstract sense that its products are the result of human effort. It
requires the existence of markets in which the products of labor are
exchanged for the mere fact of these being the product of effort to become
objective, that is, to make a difference in their production and exchange
on a systematic basis. Or so Marx tells us.

Services in a market economy can embody value just as products can. There
is no analytical difference between them. They are commodities just like
goods. They are sold, in the first approximation, at their cost of
production mesaured in labor time. 

The issue of how skilled labor, like that of superstar actors (not a
central example for Marx) is to be handled is rather knotty. Marx slides
over the issue by treating all labora s abstract, i.e., unskilled, and
taking skilled labor as a multiplicand of abstract labor. So in the case
of actors, the idea is that the labor of de NIro or Pacino is valued an n
times the labor of the hewert of wood or drawer of water. This is not
veryu plausible. It was not even plausible in Marx's day. That is in part
because it misses the particular contribution different incommensurable
skills make to the economy. Back then this may have seemed less apparant
because so much of the labor necesasry to run early capitalism was in fact
unskilled. (Although that of engineers and other skilled workers was in
fact essential even then.) Today this treatment is even more obviously
inadequate. Various attempts have been made to deal with this problem.

Perhaps Marx should best be understood as giving a model of an economy inw
hich there really is no skilled labor. The purpose of this model, a
simplified abstraction, is to answer the problem posed to which the
special character of labor power as a unique source of more value than is
necessary to create it is suggested as an answer. This problem is: if all
commodities exchange at value, how is profit prossible? Answer: in virtue
of the exploitation of labor power, because it alone produces surplus
value. Unfortunately this approach is rather question-begging,
partricularly if we face models onw hich profit is at least partly due to
differential returm to skill. 

In addition, the general exploitation
theorem shows that any commodity may be exploited in the relevant sense.
Thus while profits are positive if and only if labor is expoloited, it is
also mathematically true that they are positive only if corn, iron, etc.
is exploited. To grasp this nontechnically, consider that labor power acts
mathetmatically like any other commodity. Clearly the exploitatioon of
labor has a moral and political significance that the exploitation of corn
or iron does it, but from an austreley explanatory perspective as far as
political economy goes, this creates difficulties for Marx's claim that
labor power is a unique commodity.

Well, I am sure that this will provoke discussion.

--Justin 



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