Amid the flurry of very interesting threads that are proceeding, I have a rather mundane, but important (at least to me) question. Historically, have the incomes of independent farmers been classified as proprietor's income? This comes up as part of a discussion of changes in the functional distribution of income in my macro class. The share of income going to wages has been remarkably constant, but the fraction of the population relying on wages has grown. Proprietors share has fallen. All this is well known. I just need to confirm where farmers fit into all this. (Lots of farm kids in my class.) Thanks, Doug Orr [EMAIL PROTECTED]
