Jim writes:

> my presumption is that racist and sexist
> practices change due to impacts from capitalism which (1) disrupt the
> power of the dominators and/or (2) strengthen the struggles of the
dominated.

First, thanks to Jim for emphasizing that these
are *assumptions* -- simplifications imposed to
make a particular model analytically tractable.

Yet any set of assumptions can be criticized on
grounds of realism.  Moreover the act of
simplifying to gain insights in one area inevitably
creates blind spots in others, and we should be
clear on what those are.

The statement above omits the possibility that
racist and sexist practices may change because of
the impact of other modes of production beside
capitalism.  It omits from consideration sources
of *change* that are not modes of production,
including struggles by those dominated, and
various cultural resources.

The quote also highlights those impacts of
capitalism on racism and patriarchy that weaken
them, either by harming dominators or aiding the
dominated, and not impacts that strengthen them,
though Jim clearly believes that both kinds of
effect are possible.  It's easy to argue that in
most of the world capitalism has tightened the
bonds of racism and patriarchy.

> Why? because racist and sexist practices aim to produce specific
> use-values
> for the dominating groups. These are typically use-values that cannot
be
> accumulated. In Marxian terms, it's a matter of C - M - C, production
and
> social relations for use.

*Do* racist and sexist practices aim to produce
mainly non-accumulating use values?  Surely
prestige and power can be accumulated -- ask
anybody trying to break into an old boys' network.
Similarly, white privilege has definite
accumulating material benefits for those who
dominate, as does patriarchal privilege.

And if capitalist exploitation depends, in some
cases, on racism and/or patriarchy, then
untangling what produced the accumulation of
use-values becomes difficult.  Jim's formulation
cuts that particular analytical knot by assuming
that it's all due to capitalism.

> On the other hand, capitalism is a process of M - C - M', where M' >
M.
> Money can be accumulated without limit (as long as crises don't
intervene),
> as can the kinds of use-values that capitalists amass (machinery,
> factories, etc.)

In India the types of  values one can attain with
an increasingly money-based system of dowry are
definitely not non-accumulating, and it is under
the system of accumulatable use-values of M-M'
that the worst horrors of gender oppression around
dowry death have been unleashed (dowry may be old,
but the unfettered dowry leading to dowry
killings is new and linked to the move to an M-M'
system of accumulation of wealth and property).

> I theorize racism or patriarchy as basically reflecting an
"equilibrium"
> between the efforts by the dominators to dominate and the resistance
of the
> dominated.

If this is simply the truism that any structure
of domination needs to maintain and reproduce
itself over time otherwise it will disappear,
then it is unclear why this applies just to
patriarchy or to racial orders. If these are
simply theoretical *definitions*, Jim's point
about the conservatism of racism or patriarchy
tautologically true because he has *defined*
them that way.  The theoretical formulation of
progressive capitalism given in the bare-bones
model in Jim's post assumes that such equilibria
are stable and never challenged except by
capitalism, which is the sole motor of history
remaining in the model.

Best, Charu and Colin
(S. Charusheela wrote much of the above.)



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