Hi again, Speculates Paul, most intriguingly: > Indeed, early capital >accumulation (I argue until after the 1st WW) was from unequal >exchange between the commercial/transportation sector which >used its monopoly power to extract surplus from the primary >producer, not from appropropriated surplus value from waged >workers. May we draw a parallel betwixt the railroads of 1900 and the Telco cartel and IBM/MSFT behemoth in 2000, then? Is the stuff they get back for their product/service not way above exchange value? Are they not copping heaps of surplus value from other sectors (and, importantly, other countries) - much, much more than might be indicated by looking at remuneration costs inside the Telco/IT sector itself? And ain't they working a lovely institutionally protected (WIPO, WTO, trade-status threats etc) monopoly rort? Cheers, Rob.
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