> >Another point on this is that for Marx "value" mainly applies to >capitalism. Marx refers to the fruits of exploitation in pre-capitalist >societies as "surplus-labor" ( see below) not "surplus value" . So, for >Marx "value" is meant to convey the specific form of exploitation that >predominates in capitalism. "Value" is unique to capitalism, or to the >commodity production and exchange that was on the periphery of societies >until capitalism. In Marxist terms, feudal serfs were exploited , but did >not produce value. > >So, showing exploitation in capitalism without using the concept of "value" >misses the point or impoverishes rather than enriches Marx's theory.
I discuss this is What's Wrong with Exploitation?, look it up, and see if you disagree. jks > _________________________________________________________________ Get your FREE download of MSN Explorer at http://explorer.msn.com/intl.asp.
