Charles wrote: > . . . actually the productive _forces_ can be measured to a > certain extent using the physics concept of "force", in that > there is at least in the period from European feudalism to > capitalism a leap in the amount of energy capture and ability to > do "work" ( in the physics sense of work = force x distance) with > technology .
I think I disagree about being able to use "force"--as defined by physics--to quantify the amount of the productive forces. But Charles' point raises an idea I've not thought of before--which likely has been well-discussed by those more knowledgeable than me: to what extent did Karl M. get his ideas about productive forces from the ideas of physics then current in Europe? The notion of "force" (as used in physics) certainly existed in Europe by the early 1700s. I guess the equations of mv or mv^2 also existed. Was Karl M. aware of such things and, if so, did it play a part in the development of his theory of history? Eric .
