>If you want more specificity, consider another two-good economy.
>Sector A produces 10 units of A, using 9 units of A and 1 unit of
>labor.  Sector B produces 3 units of B, using up 2 units of A and
>1 unit of labor.  So there's a positive net product of B, 3 units,
>and a negative net product of A, 10 - 9 - 2 = -1 unit.  Now under
>the interpretation in question, the per-unit value of A is 1 and
>the per-unit value of B is also 1, so the total value of the net
>product is 2.  Imagine that workers' wages are *very* low, so that
>surplus-labor, the total value of the net product minus the value
>of wages, is very close to 2.  If, however, the relative price of
>A in terms of B is greater than 3, then profit -- measured
>simultaneously -- will be negative.  So we have surplus-labor but
>negative profit.

Why would anyone carry out production of a good worth half as much as its
inputs?  What you appear to have proved here is that if workers are employed
to destroy valuable items, then profit will be negative.  I suppose that
would be news to the analysts who covered boo.com or something, but probably
not to anyone else.  I'm probably being thick here, but I don't see how your
assumption about the relative prices of A and B is a legitimate one here;
unless the less stylised version of this argument has some compelling reason
why production of B would take place under these relative prices, I'm not
sure that this conclusion can be established

dd


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