On Mon, May 12, 2008 at 2:02 PM, Jim Devine <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> > But > > why should asset prices be excluded from inflation calculations (if > > inflation is to be considered as a metric of a "stable measuring rod")? > It > > seems to be this is as important a subject today as it was in Keynes' > day. > > usually, (unvarnished) prices are used to get some idea of the "cost of > living." > In that case it is a logical fallacy in Keynes, because he uses inflation to indicate the quality of the "measuring rod" not cost of living. Or am I missing something? -raghu.
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