On Tue, 2008-08-12 at 10:49 -0400, [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote: > > I suspect the U.S. is lower because of a higher proportion of > > not-full-timers > > who suffer from reduced or zero fringes, among other disadvantages. > > So it would be useful to ensure that like is being compared with > > like.
Indeed, on my blog (in french) I used total hours worked by the whole population between UK and France (about the same for about the same population). http://guerby.org/blog/index.php/2007/02/27/151-heures-travaillees The most widely cited data (by economists and journalists) is the OECD table which has a big warning (just under the table) of not using it to compare between country. It shows France with a very low total because overtime is not counted for France whereas it is counted for other countries. As usual I don't have access to more detailed data so I can't say much (excepted that economists and journalists are either brainless or following their ideology instead of facts, but nothing new here :). Laurent _______________________________________________ pen-l mailing list [email protected] https://lists.csuchico.edu/mailman/listinfo/pen-l
