>I didnt understand the logic of the part of the article (quoted below), which seems to say that banks refused to lend no matter how much money or credit support the bank of japan gave them because the banks were concerned about the credit worthiness of the borrowers. But then the article asserts that when regulators audited the banks and cleared up their balance sheets they started lending. The first part suggests that the problem was with the borrowers and the second part suggests that the problem was with the lenders themselves. Am I missing something? And see after the quote for another look at Japan.
Marty< In interbank lending the banks are both. Terry _______________________________________________ pen-l mailing list [email protected] https://lists.csuchico.edu/mailman/listinfo/pen-l
