Hi I was just looking at this interesting book by Yanis Varoufakis and he talks about something called a pure production model proposed by PIero Sraffa. It seems quite powerful, so I am thinking here we have equilibrium prices determined by the objective conditions of production, once distribution is settled. OK let's say we start there. But then I am thinking that the objective conditions of production are going to change, and the rates of change will differ in sectors due to their respective rates of labor productivity growth (or rates at which productivity is growing in the sectors that supply their respective means of production). So then if I am to understand how exchange ratios are changing I can't but refer to labor productivity and thus abstract labor time, no? So how does value become redundant? Lakshmi
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